Multiple Choice Questions in Science: 2013

Friday, December 27, 2013

Chapter 5 : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

Choose Appropriate Alternative

The direction of magnetic field lines in the region outside the bar magnet is...

[A] from the N pole towards the S pole of the magnet. 
[B] from the S pole towards the N pole of the magnet.
[C] in the direction coming out from both the poles of the magnet.
[D] in the direction entering both the poles of the magnet.

Which of the following statements is false?

[A] The direction of magnetic field lines is from N to S.
[B] In the region where magnetic field lines are at a close distance from one another, 
there will be a strong magnetic field. 
[C] The magnetic field lines form closed loops. 
[D] The magnetic field lines can cross one another.

By which instrument can the presence of magnetic field be determined?
```
[A] Voltmeter [B] Ammeter [C] Galvanometer [D] Magnetic needle
```
Who was the first to observe the magnetic effect of electric current?
```
[A] Faraday [B] Oersted [C] Volta [D] Ampere
```

With the help of which law can the direction of a magnetic field decided?

[A] Faraday's law          [B] Fleming's right hand rule 
[C] Right hand thumb rule  [D] Fleming's left hand rule

According to the Right hand thumb rule, direction of what is indicated by the thumb?
```
[A] Electric current [B] Magnetic field [C] Magnetic force [D] Motion of conductor
```

The magnetic field produced in a straight conducting wire on passing current through it is...

[A] in the direction of current [B] in the direction opposite to the current 
[C] circular around the wire    [D] in the direction parallel to the wire

What is the type of field line of a magnetic field passing through the centre of current carrying circular ring?
```
[A] Circular [B] Straight line [C] Ellipse [D] Magnetic field is zero at centre.
```

Which of the following has magnetic field like that of a bar magnet?

[A] Current carrying wire     [B] Current carrying ring 
[C] Current carrying solenoid [D] Current carrying rectangular loop

Who gave the principle of electromagnetic induction?
```
[A] Faraday [B] Oersted [C] Volta [D] Ampere
```

Which is the direction of magnetic force acting on a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field?

[A] along magnetic field            [B] along the electric current 
[C] perpendicular to magnetic field [D] opposite to magnetic field

How is a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field so that magnetic field does not act on it?

[A] Parallel to the magnetic field             [B] Perpendicular to the magnetic field 
[C] Making angle of 40° with magnetic field [D] Can be arranged any way.

In which of the following cases, the induced current in the loop will not be obtained?

[A] The loop is moved in the direction of the magnet. 
[B] The magnet is moved in the direction of the loop.
[C] The loop and the magnet are moved in opposite direction with same speed.
[D] The loop and the magnet are moved in one direction with same speed.

Which instrument is used for converting electrical energy into mechanical energy?
```
[A] Electric generator [B] Electric motor [C] Electric iron [D] Electric oven
```

On which principle does the electric generator work?

[A] Electrical energy is converted to mechanical energy.
[B] Electrical energy is converted to thermal energy.
[C] Mechanical energy is converted to electrical energy.
[D] Electrical energy is converted to light energy.

The magnitude of AC voltage used in India is _____ and the frequency is _____.
```
[A] 110V, 60Hz [B] 110V, 50Hz [C] 220V, 50Hz [D] 220V, 60Hz
```
Which coloured insulation cover is used for earthing wire?
```
[A] Red [B] Black [C] Green [D] Can be of any colour
```

Which type of current is obtained from a battery?

[A] AC [B] DC [C] Both AC and DC [D] Depends on type of battery

Which of the following instruments is used to know the presence of electric current?
```
[A] Fuse [B] Galvanometer [C] Voltmeter [D] Magnetic needle
```

A fuse wire is...

[A] a conductor [B] an insulator [C] a semi-conductor [D] made of any material

______ is the rule used to know the direction of the induced current in the circuit.

[A] Fleming's left hand rule [B] Fleming's right hand rule 
[C] Right hand thumb rule    [D] Ampere's rule

How many times does an Alternating current (AC) with frequency 50Hz change its direction?
```
[A] 25 [B] 50 [C] 100 [D] 200
```
At the centre of which of the following four circular rings the magnetic field is the strongest for equal magnitude of current?
```
[A] Figure A [B] Figure B [C] Figure C [D] Figure D
```

The magnetism of magnets is maximum...

[A] at poles [B] at the centre [C] at the axis [D] everywhere in the magnet

Within a bar magnet, the magnetic field lines are...

[A] from N to S [B] from S to N [C] absent [D] in both directions

The strength of magnetic field produced in a current carrying straight conductor is...

[A] directly proportional to the distance from the wire 
[B] directly proportional to the magnitude of the current in wire
[C] inversely proportional to the magnitude of the current in wire
[D] independent of the magnitude of the current in wire

The magnetic field inside a solenoid is...

[A] strong at N pole and weak at S pole
[B] strong at S pole and weak at N pole
[C] uniform throughout 
[D] zero

What is not true?

[A] A solenoid is an electromagnet. [B] A solenoid is a temporary magnet.
[C] A solenoid is a permanent magnet. [D] A solenoid is like a bar magnet.

A fuse wire is generally made of...

[A] copper [B] aluminium [C] alloy of lead and tin [D] alloy of copper and lead

In our domestic electric supply, we use following three colours of insulation cover on wires:

[A] Red, blue, green     [B] Red, yellow, blue
[C] Black, green, yellow [D] Red, black, green

The current passing through two separate lines (circuits) of our houses is _____ A and _____ A.
```
[A] 5, 10 [B] 5, 15 [C] 10, 15 [D] 2, 5
```

Which of the following is not a permanent magnet?

[A] Magnetic needle [B] Bar magnet [C] Electromagnet [D] Horse-shoe magnet

The force experienced by a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field will be maximum when it is...

[A] at an angle of 45° to the magnetic field 
[B] at right angle to the magnetic field 
[C] parallel to the magnetic field 
[D] anti-parallel to the magnetic field

A magnetic field will not exert force on...

[A] a bar magnet     [B] a stationary electric charge
[C] an electromagnet [D] an electric charge moving perpendicularly to it

On which of the following does the electromotive force not depend?

[A] The relative motion of the coil and magnet [B] Number of turns 
[C] Rate of change of flux linked with the coil[D] Material of the coil

During the situation of short-circuit, the current in the circuit...

[A] reduces to zero [B] increases greatly [C] does not change [D] oscillates

If many appliances are connected in a circuit, _____ may occur.

[A] short-circuit [B] long-circuit [C] over loading [D] explosion

At the centre of which of the following four circular rings the magnetic field is the strongest for equal magnitude of current?
```
[A] Loop 1 [B] Loop 2 [C] Loop 3 [D] Loop 4
```

Match the following in Part A with appropriate alternative in Part B.

[A] 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a [B] 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
[C] 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c [D] 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

What is the potential difference of the current flowing in the insulated wires in America?
```
[A] 220 V [B] 100 V [C] 110 V [D] 60 V
```
_____ current line is connected to the air-conditioning machine.
```
[A] 20 A [B] 15 A [C] 10 A [D] 5 A
```
If the current flowing through each turn of a solenoid is in the same direction, the magnetic field produced by n turns will be ____ with the magnetic field due to each turn.
```
[A] added [B] subtracted [C] multiplied [D] divided
```

The magnitude of the induced current due to the relative motion of coil and a magnet does not depend on...

[A] speed of the relative motion [B] number of turns of coil
[C] resistivity of wire of coil  [D] pole strength of the magnet

Which of the following statements is not suitable with reference to Direct Current(DC)?

[A] Electric current flows always from positive pole to negative pole.
[B] The value of electric current is always constant with time.
[C] Its production is cheap
[D] More energy is wasted in its conduction

```
[A][B][C][D]
```

ANSWERS

(1) A (2) D (3) D (4) B (5) C (6) D (7) C (8) B (9) C (10) A (11) C (12) A (13) D (14) B (15) C (16) C (17) C (18) B (19) B (20) A (21) B (22) C (23) A (24) A (25) B (26) B (27) C (28) C (29) C (30) D (31) B (32) C (33) B (34) B (35) D (36) B (37) C (38) D (39) D (40) C (41) B (42) C (43) C (44) C (45)

Friday, December 20, 2013

Chapter 6 : UNIVERSE

Choose Appropriate Alternative

Which of the following is a star?

[A] Sun [B] Phobos [C] Asteroid [D] Comet

Which of the following is not a member of our solar system?

[A] Asteroid [B] Shooting star [C] Sun [D] Artificial satellite

What is the periodic time of Halley's comet?

[A] 67 years [B] 76 years [C] 86 years [D] 100 years

Matter in the core region of the Sun is in _____ state.
```
[A] solid [B] liquid [C] gaseous [D] plasma
```
_____ is the most brilliant planet of our solar system.
```
[A] Earth [B] Venus [C] Jupiter [D] Mars
```

Poles of Mars are covered by...

[A] dry-ice [B] water-ice [C] nitrogen [D] iron

_____ was the first person to land on moon.

[A] Yuri gagarin [B] Aleksi Leonov [C] Kalpana Chawla [D] Neil Armstrong

The distance of a geostationary satellite above Earth's surface is _____ km.
```
[A] 43000 [B]  37956 [C] 35786 [D] 23123
```
Using telescope, who discovered four large moons of Jupiter in 17th century?
```
[A] Galileo [B] Kepler [C] Newton [D] Hubble
```
The first imaging X-ray telescope launches by NASA in 1978 was named...
```
[A] Galileo [B] Kepler [C] Einstein [D] Hubble
```
The X-ray radio telescope 'Einstein' was renamed_____ in 1999 by NASA.
```
[A] Galileo [B] Hubble [C] Chandra [D] Kepler
```

Who presented 'Geo-centric' model of Universe?

[A] Copernicus [B] Galileo [C] Kepler [D] Ptolemy

Who presented 'Helio-centric' model of Universe?

[A] Copernicus [B] Galileo [C] Plato [D] Ptolemy

Who discovered the laws of planetary motion?

[A] Copernicus [B] Kepler [C] Galileo [D] Newton

'There is no obvious centre of the Universe'. this fact is suggested by...

[A] Newton's first law of motion [B] Kepler's laws of planetary motion
[C] Einstein's theory of relativity [D] Universal law of gravitation

The estimated age of our solar system is _____ years.

[A] 3.72 billion [B] 4.568 billion [C] 4.923 billion [D] 4.865 billion

About _____% of the mass of the solar system is concentrated in Sun.
```
[A] 97.56 [B] 96.98 [C] 99.86 [D] 98.96
```

The planets are kept in their orbits by...

[A] centripetal force [B] centrifugal force [C] nuclear force [D] magnetic force

The diameter of Sun is about _____ km.

[A] 15,29,000 [B] 15,92,000 [C] 14,29,000 [D] 13,92,000

The temperature in the core region of Sun is about _____ K.
```
[A] 0.5 crore [B] 1.0 crore [C] 1.05 crore [D] 1.5 crore
```

Einstein's mass-energy relation is...

[A] E = Δm.c [B] E = Δm.c² [C] E = (Δm)².c[D] E = (Δm.c)²

During thermonuclear fusion process taking place in Sun, four hydrogen nuclei fuse to form a nucleus of...
```
[A] carbon [B] helium [C] heavy hydrogen [D] radium
```
At the surface of Sun, the temperature is about _____ K.
```
[A] 3000 [B] 4500 [C] 6000 [D] 15000
```

Sun spots result due to variation in...

[A] Earth's magnetic field [B] Sun's magnetic field 
[C] Earth's temperature   [D] Sun's temperature

The thickness of photosphere of Sun is about _____ km.
```
[A] 400 [B] 600 [C] 800 [D] 1000
```
Which of the following is not a terrestrial planet?
```
[A] Earth [B] Mercury [C] Mars [D] Jupiter
```
Which of the following is not a Jovian planet?
```
[A] Earth [B] Jupiter [C] Saturn [D] Neptune
```
_____ is the smallest planet of our solar system.
```
[A] Mercury [B] Earth [C] Venus [D] Pluto
```
The ratio of the mass of Mercury to mass of Earth is...
```
[A] 1:12 [B] 12:1 [C] 1:18 [D] 18:1
```
The daytime and night-time temperatures on Mercury are ______ and ______, respectively.
```
[A] 427°C, 173°C [B] 427°C, 100°C [C] 427°C, -173°C [D] 472°C, -173°C
```

Which planets have no moon?

[A] Mercury and Mars [B] Venus and Mars [C] Mercury and Venus [D] Venus and saturn

The Sun rises in the west on...

[A] Mercury [B] Venus [C] Mars [D] Neptune

Which pair of the planets forms neighbours of Earth?

[A] Mercury, Venus [B] Venus, Mars [C] Mercury, Mars [D] Mars, Jupiter

The atmosphere of Venus largely consists of clouds of...
```
[A] O₂ [B] H₂ [C] CO₂ [D] N₂
```

Phobos and Deimos are the moons of...

[A] Mars [B] Venus [C] Uranus [D] Saturn

Jupiter is about _____ times bigger than the Earth.
```
[A] 1000 [B] 1200 [C] 1400 [D] 1600
```
Saturn is about _____ times bigger than the Earth.
```
[A] 450 [B] 550 [C] 650 [D] 850
```

_____ is the largest moon of Saturn.

[A] Phobos [B] Ceres [C] Triton [D] Titan

Uranus is about _____ times bigger than the Earth.
```
[A] 37 [B] 46 [C] 64 [D] 84
```

Triton and Nerid are moons of...

[A] Neptune [B] Uranus [C] Jupiter [D] Mars

The orbit of _____ is highly elliptical.

[A] Venus [B] Neptune [C] Uranus [D] Pluto

There are about _____ asteroids.

[A] 1 million [B] 1 lac [C] 10,000 [D] 50,000

The diameter of the largest known asteroid, Ceres, is about _____ km.
```
[A] 100 [B] 400 [C] 1000 [D] 4000
```
The diameter of the asteroid, Vesta, is about _____ km.
```
[A] 100 [B] 400 [C] 1000 [D] 4000
```

Meteors are seen in large numbers during the period between...

[A] August to November [B] November to February 
[C] March to May       [D] June to August

If an object entering Earth's atmosphere from space falls on Earth, it is called...
```
[A] a comet [B] a meteor [C] a meteorite [D] an asteroid
```
If the surface temperature of a star is very low, the star appears...
```
[A] blue [B] white [C] red [D] yellow
```
If the surface temperature of a star is very high, the star appears...
```
[A] blue [B] white [C] red [D] yellow
```
There are _____ nakshatras.
```
[A] 22 [B] 24 [C] 25 [D] 27
```

The angular region of every nakshatra is...

[A] 12° 30' [B] 13° 20' [C] 14° 20' [D] 12° 40'

The sun remains in one nakshatra for about _____ days.
```
[A] 15 [B] 27 [C] 30 [D] 13.5
```
The diameter of Milky Way is about _____ light years.
```
[A] 15,000 [B] 30,000 [C] 60,000 [D] 1,00,000
```
The Sun is situated about _____ light years away from the galactic centre.
```
[A] 15,000 [B] 30,000 [C] 50,000 [D] 75,000
```
The Sun completes one revolution around the galactic centre in _____ years.
```
[A] 15 crore [B] 22.5 crore [C] 25.2 crore [D] 30 crore
```
There are about _____ stars in a galaxy.
```
[A] 10¹¹ [B] 10¹³ [C] 10¹⁹ [D] 10²²
```
There are about _____ stars in the Universe.
```
[A] 10¹¹ [B] 10¹³ [C] 10¹⁹ [D] 10²²
```

The period of the slowest observed pulsar is...

[A] 8 seconds [B] 80 seconds [C] 8 minutes [D] 80 minutes

Who was the pioneer of space travel?

[A] Albert Einstein [B] Yuri Gagarin [C] Tsiolkowsky [D] Kaspersky

The first artificial satellite launched in space was...

[A] Sputnik-I [B] Explorer-I [C] Challenger [D] Atlantis

The first human being who visited space was...

[A] Yuri Gagarin [B] Neil Armstrong [C] Aleksi Leonov [D] Timolov

The first space-walk was done by _____ on 18th March,1965.

[A] Yuri Gagarin [B] Neil Armstrong [C] Aleksi Leonov [D] Timolov

The first space-shuttle launched on 12th April, 1981, was...
```
[A] Challenger [B] Columbia [C] Discovery [D] Atlantis
```

The full form of LHC is...

[A] Large Hydrogen Collider  [B] Large Hedron Collider
[C] Liquid Hydrogen Collider [D] Liquid Hedron Collider

The first satellite launched by India in 1980 was...
```
[A] INSAT-1 [B] Rohini [C] Aryabhatt [D] IRS-1
```
The minimum speed required for a satellite to revolve around the Earth in an orbit is...
```
[A] 8 km/h [B] 8 km/min [C] 8 km/s [D] 8 m/s
```
The height of a satellite in polar orbit is about _____ km.
```
[A] 200 [B] 700 [C] 1000 [D] 35786
```
The repeating time of remote-sensing satellite of India is...
```
[A] 16 hours [B] 16 days [C] 21 hours [D] 21 days
```
For DTH (Direct to Home) TV transmission, India has launched...
```
[A] Rohini [B] INSAT-1 [C] Cartosat [D] INSAT-4
```
The strength of the gravitational field of Mercury is about _____ times that of the Earth.
```
[A] 1/3 [B] 1/2 [C] 3 [D] 2
```
_____ is the largest planet of our solar system.
```
[A] Earth [B] Jupiter [C] Saturn [D] Neptune
```
There are _____ beautiful rings around Saturn.
```
[A] 2 [B] 3 [C] 4 [D] 5
```
The diameter of Earth is d_e. Then the diameter of Uranus is _____ x d_e.
```
[A] 1.7 [B] 2.7 [C] 3.7 [D] 4.7
```
Asteroids revolve around...
```
[A] Earth [B] Mars [C] Jupiter [D] Sun
```

The tail of a comet is the longest when...

[A] it is nearest to the Sun [B] it is farthest from the Sun
[C] it is far from the Earth [D] it is near Saturn

Which of the following is a star?

[A] A tailed star [B] A shooting star [C] Sun [D] Andromeda

The moon undergoes an angular displacement of _____ in 1 day.
```
[A] 30° [B] 20° 40' [C] 15° 45' [D] 13° 20'
```

The moon stays in one nakshatra for about...

[A] 30 days [B] 13.5 days [C] 7 days [D] 1 day

Sun rises _____ minutes _____ than the time of its rise the previous day.
```
[A] 4, earlier [B] 4, later [C] 8.5, earlier [D] 8.5 later
```
There are about _____ galaxies in the Universe.
```
[A] 10¹¹ [B] 10¹² [C] 10²² [D] 10²³
```

A rocket works on the principle of...

[A] Newton's first law of motion [B] Newton's second law of motion 
[C] Newton's third law of motion [D] Newton's law of gravitation

Which series of satellites is used by India for astronomical observations?
```
[A] Agni [B] Rohini [C] INSAT [D] Kalpana
```

1 light year = _______ km.

[A] 4.96 x 10¹² [B] 6.49 x 10¹²[C] 9.46 x 10¹² [D] 6.94 x 10¹²

1 light year = ______ Au.
```
[A] 63240 [B] 36240 [C] 24360 [D] 60234
```

Astronomical Unit (Au) is the mean distance between...

[A] Earth and Moon [B] Earth and Jupiter [C] Earth and Sun [D] Sun and Jupiter

1 Astronomical unit (Au) = _____ km.

[A] 1.946 x 10⁸ [B] 1.496 x 10⁸ [C] 4.96 x 10⁸ [D] 9.46 x 10⁸

According to _______ there may be more than one universe.

[A] John Kepler [B] Stephen Hawking [C] Albert Einstein [D] Yuri Gagarin

Which planet of our solar system has maximum number of satellites?
```
[A] Mars [B] Saturn [C] Jupiter [D] Neptune
```
Which of the following planets has very large temperature difference between day-time and night-time?
```
[A] Mercury [B] Venus [C] Earth [D] Neptune
```
Halley's comet was last seen in the year _____.
```
[A] 1968 [B] 1978 [C] 1986 [D] 1999
```

Match the statements in Part A with the name of the planet in Part B.

[A] 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d [B] 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a 
[C] 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b [D] 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

Match appropriate pairs in Part A and Part B.

[A] 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a [B] 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
[C] 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b [D] 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

Match the satellites in Part A with their functions in Part B.

[A] 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d [B] 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
[C] 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b [D] 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

_____ satellite gives information regarding the life in oceans and the environment around it.
```
[A] EDUSAT [B] RESOURCESAT [C] INSAT-4A [D] METSAT
```

How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation about its own axis?

[A] 24 hours [B] 23 hours 58 minutes [C] 23 hours 57 minutes [D] 23 hours 56 minutes

At what speed does the Sun revolve around the galactic centre?
```
[A] 30,000 km/h [B] 250 m/s [C] 250 km/s [D] 250 km/h
```
_____ is used for launching 1000-2000 kg class of remote sensing satellites.
```
[A] GSLV [B] MSLV [C] PSLV [D] CSLV
```
```
[A][B][C][D]
```
```
[A][B][C][D]
```

ANSWERS

(1) A (2) D (3) B (4) D (5) B (6) A (7) D (8) C (9) A (10) C (11) C (12) D (13) A (14) B (15) C (16) B (17) C (18) A (19) D (20) D (21) B (22) B (23) C (24) B (25) A (26) D (27) A (28) A (29) C (30) C (31) C (32) B (33) B (34) C (35) A (36) C (37) D (38) D (39) C (40) A (41) D (42) B (43) C (44) B (45) A (46) C (47) C (48) A (49) D (50) B (51) D (52) D (53) B (54) B (55) A (56) D (57) A (58) C (59) A (60) A (61) C (62) B (63) B (64) B (65) C (66) C (67) D (68) D (69) A (70) B (71) B (72) C (73) D (74) A (75) C (76) D (77) D (78) A (79) A (80) C (81) B (82) C (83) A (84) C (85) B (86) B (87) C (88) A (89) C (90) C (91) B (92) D (93) B (94) D (95) C (96) C (97)

Sunday, December 15, 2013

Chapter 7 : ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

Choose Appropriate Alternative

What is formed by the reaction of a non-metal oxide with water?
```
[A] Acid [B] Base [C] Salt [D] Metal
```

Acid + Metal oxide ---> ______

[A] Base + water [B] Salt + water [C] Base + salt [D] Metal + salt

Which gas is produced by the reaction of a base with a metal?

[A] Carbon dioxide [B] Dioxygen [C] Dihydrogen [D] Dinitrogen

500 ml aqueous solution is prepared by dissolving 2 moles of HCl in water. What will be the molarity of this solution?
```
[A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 3 [D] 4
```

What is correct for acidic aqueous solution?

[A] [H₃O⁺] = 10^-7M [B] [H₃O⁺] < 10^-7M [C] [H₃O⁺] > 10^-7M [D] [H₃O⁺] < [OH^-]

Which of the following solutions is most basic?

[A] p^H = 8.2 [B] p^H = 9.3 [C] p^H = 11.5 [D] p^H = 10.6

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

[A] p^H scale was presented by S.P.L.Sorensen. 
[B] p^H scale ranges from 0 to 14.
[C] p^H scale is applicable to only non-aqueous solutions.
[D] p^H scale is applicable to only aqueous solutions.

What is used to measure the exact p^H of an aqueous solution?

[A] p^H paper [B] Litmus paper [C] p^H meter [D] Universal indicator

Which of the following substances is an antacid?
```
[A] NaCl [B] Mg(OH)₂ [C] HCl [D] H₂SO₄
```
How many times less basic is an aqueous solution having p^H = 11 than that having p^H = 8?
```
[A] 3 [B] 30 [C] 300 [D] 1000
```

Which of the following is a strong acid?

[A] Acetic acid [B] Citric acid [C] Nitric acid [D] Oxalic acid

What type of substance is NH₃?

[A] Strong acid [B] Weak acid [C] Strong base [D] Weak base

p^H + p^OH = ______.
```
[A] 7 [B] 0 [C] 14 [D] 10
```

Which of the following formulas is correct?

[A] Mole = molecular mass/weight [B] Mole = weight /molecular mass 
[C] Mole = weight/litre       [D] Mole = molecular mass/litre

What will be the p^H of aqueous solution of NH₄Cl?
```
[A] p^H = 7 [B] p^H > 7 [C] p^H < 7 [D] p^H = 0
```

Which of the following solutions will have p^H = 2?

[A] 0.01M HCl [B] 0.02M HCl [C] 0.01M H₂SO₄ [D] 0.02M H₂SO₄

What will be the concentration of OH^- ion in aqueous solution having p^H = 8?
```
[A] 1 x 10^-8M [B] 1 x 10^-6M [C] 8 x 10^-6M [D] 8 x 10^-8M
```
The p^H values of solutions A, B, C and D are 1.9, 2.5, 2.1 and 3.0, respectively. Their order of acidity will be...
```
[A] A < C < B < D [B] D < C < B < A [C] D < B < C < A [D] D > C > B > A
```

Which solution will be basic?

[A] [H₃O⁺] = 10^-5M [B] [H₃O⁺] = 10^-12M
[C] [H₃O⁺] = 10^-7M [D] [H₃O⁺] = 10^-4M

Which substance is present in the poison of honey bee?

[A] Lime [B] Calcium phosphate [C] Mellitin [D] Pepsin

Who gave operational definitions of acids and bases?

[A] Robert Boyle [B] Arrhenius [C] Bronsted-Lowry [D] Sorensen

Who gave acid-base theory based on the process of ionization?
```
[A] Robert Boyle [B] Arrhenius [C] Bronsted-Lowry [D] Lewis
```
According to Arrhenius, base is a substance producing _____ ion in aqueous solution.
```
[A] H⁺ [B] OH^- [C] H₃O⁺ [D] K⁺
```
Which of the following does not have independent existence?
```
[A] H⁺ [B] H₂ [C] H₃O⁺ [D] NH₃
```

According to Bronsted-Lowry, an acid is a substance which...

[A] accepts proton from another substance [B] donates proton to another substance 
[C] does not ionize [D] does not produce OH^- ion in aqueous solution

According to Bronsted-Lowry, a base is a substance which...

[A] does not form covalent bond [B] accepts proton from another substance
[C] ionizes completely         [D] donates proton to another substance

The bond between H⁺ and H₂O in H₃O⁺ is...

[A] ionic [B] covalent [C] coordinate covalent [D] metallic

According to Bronsted-Lowry, when HCl gas is dissolved in water, water behaves as...
```
[A] an acid [B] a base [C] a neutral substance [D] a salt
```
According to Bronsted-Lowry, when ammonia gas is dissolved in water, water behaves as...
```
[A] an acid [B] a base [C] a neutral substance [D] a salt
```
According to the acid-base theory by Bronsted-Lowry, water is...
```
[A] an acid [B] a base [C] amphoteric [D] neutral
```
The formula of carbonic acid is...
```
[A] H₂SO₃ [B] CO₂ [C] H₂CO₃ [D] HCO₃
```
Which of the following gives an acid when dissolved in water?
```
[A] NH₃ [B] Na₂O [C] CaO [D] SO₃
```
Which of the following gives a basic solution when dissolved in water?
```
[A] CO₂ [B] SO₂ [C] SO₃ [D] Na₂O
```
Which of the following metals generally do not react with acids?
```
[A] Au [B] Ag [C] Pt [D] All three
```
Which of the following metals easily reacts with an acid?
```
[A] Ca [B] Au [C] Ag [D] Pt
```
When nitric acid reacts with a metal like zinc,______ gas is produced.
```
[A] NO₂ [B] H₂ [C] NO [D] N₂O
```

The reaction between an acid and a base is called...

[A] acid hydrolysis [B] hydrolysis [C] alkalisation [D] neutralization

When an acid reacts with a metal carbonate/bicarbonate _____ gas is produced.
```
[A] CO₂ [B] CO [C] CO₂ or CO [D] both CO₂ and CO
```

The formula of sodium zincate is...

[A] NaZn₂O₄ [B] Na₂ZnO₂ [C] NaZnO₃ [D] Na₂Zn₂(OH)₃

The unit of molarity is...

[A] mole/kg [B] kg/mole [C] mole/litre [D] kg/litre

The molecular mass of NaOH is 40 g/mole. How much NaOH is required to prepare 250 ml 1M solution of NaOH?
```
[A] 10g [B] 40g [C] 160g [D] 100g
```
The molecular mass of H₂SO₄ is 98. If 29.4g H₂SO₄ is dissolved in water to make 500 ml solution, what is its molarity?
```
[A] 0.3M [B] 0.6M [C] 0.15M [D] 0.5M
```
When 112g of KOH is dissolved in water to make 4 litre solution, its molarity is 0.5M. What is the molecular mass of KOH?
```
[A] 112 [B] 224 [C] 56 [D] 28
```

The formula for the p^H of an aqueous solution is...

[A] p^H = log₁₀ [H₃O⁺] [B] p^H = -log₁₀ [H₃O⁺]
[C] p^H = log₁₀ [OH^-][D] p^H = -log₁₀ [OH^-]

At 298 K, the concentration of H₃O⁺ in pure water is...
```
[A] 1 x 10^-7M [B] 1 x 10⁷M [C] 7.0M [D] 0.7M
```
If the colour of p^H paper turns pink in an aqueous solution, then the approximate p^H of the solution is...
```
[A] 8 [B] 6 [C] 4 [D] 2
```
If the colour of p^H paper turns blue in an aqueous solution, then the approximate p^H of the solution is...
```
[A] 10 [B] 8 [C] 7 [D] 5
```
The range of p^H suitable for efficient biological processes in humans is...
```
[A] 5.6 to 6.5 [B] 6.5 to 7.0 [C] 7.0 to 7.8 [D] 7.8 to 8.7
```
The range of p^H suitable for proper activity of enzyme pepsin in stomach is...
```
[A] 8 to 9 [B] 6 to 8 [C] 4 to 6 [D] 1 to 3
```
The range of p^H of the soil suitable for better growth and development of plants is...
```
[A] 5.6 to 6.5 [B] 6.5 to 7.3 [C] 7.3 to 7.8 [D] 7.8 to 8.7
```
Farmers use _____ for neutralization of acidic soil.
```
[A] CaSO₄.2H₂O [B] CaO [C] H₂CO₃ [D] CH₃COOH
```
Farmers use _____ for neutralization of alkaline soil.
```
[A] CaSO₄.2H₂O [B] CaO [C] NaOH [D] KOH
```

The external surface of our teeth is made up of...

[A] calcium sulphate [B] calcium carbonate [C] calcium phosphate [D] calcium chloride

The external surface of our teeth gets corroded if the p^H within the mouth is...

[A] less than 5.5      [B] between 5.5 and 7.0 
[C] between 7.0 and 7.5 [D] beyond 7.5

Red ants contain _____ in their body.

[A] citric acid [B] formic acid [C] acetic acid [D] oxalic acid

Melittin is a polypeptide consisting of _____ amino acids.
```
[A] 20 [B] 22 [C] 24 [D] 26
```
The p^H values for two aqueous solutions 'A' and 'B' are 2 and 5, respectively. If the concentration of H₃O⁺ in 'A' is 'x' mole/lit, then the concentration of H₃O⁺ in 'B' is _____ mole/lit.
```
[A] x/3 [B] 3x [C] 2x/5 [D] x/1000
```
If (p^H of solution A - p^H of solution B) = x, then the ratio of concentrations of H₃O⁺ in solution B and solution A is...
```
[A] x [B] 10x [C] 10^x [D] x/10
```
If (p^H of solution A - p^H of solution B) = x, then the ratio of concentrations of OH^- in solution A and solution B is...
```
[A] x/10 [B] 10^x [C] 10x [D] x
```
If the difference between p^H and p^OH of a solution is 4, then p^H = ______.
```
[A] 10 [B] 9 [C] 8 [D] 6
```
If the difference between p^OH and p^H of a solution is 4, then p^H = ______.
```
[A] 4 [B] 5 [C] 6 [D] 8
```

Which of the following is a weak acid?

[A] Sulphuric acid [B] Nitric acid [C] Citric acid [D] Hydrochloric acid

The concentration of H₃O⁺ in 1 M aqueous solution of sulphuric acid is...
```
[A] 1 M [B] 2 M [C] 0.5 M [D] 0 M
```
The concentration of SO₄^-2 in 1 M aqueous solution of sulphuric acid is...
```
[A] 1 M [B] 2 M [C] 0.5 M [D] 0.01 M
```
The p^H of a salt solution obtained by the reaction between a strong acid and a strong base is...
```
[A] is 7 [B] is less than 7 [C] is more than 7 [D] cannot be determined
```

Sodium chloride is a salt of...

[A] a weak acid and a weak base    [B] a strong acid and a strong base
[C] a weak acid and a strong base [D] a strong acid and a weak base

Which of the following is a salt of a strong acid and a strong base?
```
[A] Na₂CO₃ [B] NH₄NO₃ [C] NH₄Cl [D] KNO₃
```
Which of the following is a salt of a weak acid and a strong base?
```
[A] NaCl [B] KNO₃ [C] Na₂CO₃ [D] NH₄NO₃
```
Which of the following is a salt of a strong acid and a weak base?
```
[A] NaCl [B] Na₂CO₃ [C] NH₄Cl [D] CH₃COONH₄
```
Which of the following is a salt of a weak acid and a weak base?
```
[A] NaCl [B] KNO₃ [C] Na₂CO₃ [D] (NH₄)₂CO₃
```
The aqueous solution of a salt obtained by the reaction between a weak acid and a weak base is...
```
[A] acidic [B] basic [C] neutral [D] any one of A, B and C
```
Which gas is liberated by the reaction of an acid with a carbonate?
```
[A] H₂ [B] CO₂ [C] N₂ [D] O₂
```
The number of moles of a solute dissolved in 1 litre solution is called...
```
[A] normality [B] molality [C] molarity [D] acidity
```
Which of the following acids is secreted in our stomach?
```
[A] H₂SO₄ [B] HCl [C] HNO₃ [D] Citric acid
```
A substance 'Z' ionizes completely in an aqueous solution releasing H₃O⁺ ion. The substance 'Z' is a...
```
[A] strong acid [B] strong base [C] weak acid [D] weak base
```

NaOH is ...

[A] a salt [B] a weak base [C] a strong base [D] a strong acid

Which of the following is the correct formula for 'mole'?

[A] Molecular mass/weight [B] weight/litre [C] weight/molecular mass [D] litre/weight

What is the nature of an aqueous solution having p^OH = 5?
```
[A] Acidic [B] Basic [C] Neutral [D] Amphoteric
```
What is the molecular formula of milk of magnesia?
```
[A] Mg(OH)₂ [B] MgCO₃ [C] NaHCO₃ [D] MgO
```
What will be the value of p^H of 10^-5 M NaOH solution?
```
[A] 5 [B] 8 [C] 9 [D] 10
```
When blue litmus paper is dipped in an aqueous solution 'A', its colour does not change. Which of the following is true for 'A'?
```
[A] It is neutral. [B] It is basic. [C] It is not acidic. [D] It is acidic or neutral.
```

Match the pairs from Part A and Part B

[A] 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p [B] 1-r, 2-p, 3-q, 4-s
[C] 1-r, 2-p, 3-s, 4-q [D] 1-q, 2-p, 3-r, 4-s

Match the names in Part A with appropriate formula in Part B.

[A] 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-t [B] 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-t 
[C] 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r [D] 1-r, 2-s, 3-p, 4-q

If there is a decrease in the concentration of H₃O⁺, what is the change in the p^H of the solution?
```
[A] No change [B] Increase [C] Decrease [D] may increase or decrease
```
Neutralization between a weak acid and a weak base results in the formation of a _____ salt.
```
[A] acidic [B] basic [C] neutral [D] any of these
```
```
[A][B][C][D]
```

ANSWERS

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) C (6) C (7) C (8) C (9) B (10) D (11) C (12) D (13) C (14) B (15) C (16) A (17) B (18) C (19) B (20) C (21) A (22) B (23) B (24) A (25) B (26) B (27) C (28) B (29) A (30) C (31) C (32) D (33) D (34) D (35) A (36) C (37) D (38) A (39) B (40) C (41) A (42) B (43) C (44) B (45) A (46) D (47) A (48) C (49) D (50) B (51) B (52) A (53) C (54) A (55) B (56) D (57) D (58) C (59) B (60) B (61) B (62) C (63) B (64) A (65) A (66) B (67) D (68) C (69) C (70) D (71) D (72) B (73) C (74) B (75) A (76) C (77) C (78) B (79) A (80) C (81) C (82) D (83) B (84) B (85) D (86) (87) (88) (89) (90) (91)

Sunday, December 8, 2013

Chapter 8 : METALS

Choose Appropriate Alternative

What is the chemical formula of alumina?

[A] Al₂O₃ [B] Al₂O₃.2H₂O [C] Al₂O₃.H₂O [D] NaAlO₂

Which of the following reactions is called roasting?

[A] ZnCO_3(s) --> ZnO_(s) + CO_2(g) [B] 2ZnS_(s) + 3O_2(g) --> 2ZnO_(s) + 2SO_2(g) 
[C] ZnO_(s) + C_(s) --> Zn_(s) + CO_(g) [D] Zn_(s) + H₂O_(g) --> ZnO_(s) + H_2(g)

Which of the following is an alloy?

[A] Silver [B] Gallium [C] 22 Carat gold [D] 24 Carat gold

During which of the following reactions is dihydrogen gas not produced under normal conditions?

[A] Metal + dilute sulphuric acid [B] Metal + dilute hydrochloric acid 
[C] Metal + dilute nitric acid    [D] Metal + water

In which of the following, is displacement reaction possible?

[A] Solution of NaCl + coin of copper  [B] Solution of MgCl₂ + coin of aluminium
[C] Solution of FeSO₄ + coin of silver [D] Solution of AgNO₃ + coin of copper

Which of the following reactions is not possible?

[A] Zn_(s) + CuSO_4(aq) --> ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s) [B] Zn_(s) + FeSO_4(aq) --> ZnSO_4(aq) + Fe_(s)
[C] Fe_(s) + CuSO_4(aq) --> FeSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s) [D] Cu_(s) + FeSO_4(aq) --> CuSO_4(aq) + Fe_(s)

By which reaction is a metal obtained from its oxide?

[A] Liquefaction [B] Reduction [C] Calcination [D] Roasting

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

[A] Corrosion of copper takes place by contact with air and water.
[B] The melting point and the boiling point of metals are low. 
[C] Carbonate containing ores are converted to metal oxide by calcination. 
[D] A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its solution.

Which alloy is used to solder electric wires?

[A] Copper + zinc [B] Aluminium + magnesium [C] Lead + tin [D] Copper + tin

Which metal is available in highest proportion on the earth?
```
[A] Iron [B] Copper [C] Aluminum [D] Silver
```

Which metal is used in thermometer?

[A] Silver [B] Mercury [C] Sodium [D] Copper

Which of the following substances is hygroscopic?

[A] Cryolite [B] Feldspar [C] Anhydrous calcium chloride [D] Slag

How many elements are known till today?
```
[A] 112 [B] 113 [C] 114 [D] 115
```

Most of the elements are found in the form of...

[A] metals [B] nonmetals [C] metalloids [D] gases

Which metal is generally used in packaging of food materials?
```
[A] Copper [B] Iron [C] Aluminium [D] Zinc
```
Which of the following is not an inert metal?
```
[A] Gold [B] Silver [C] Tin [D] Platinum
```
Which of the following metals is used for protection from radiation?
```
[A] Gold [B] Lead [C] Silver [D] Aluminium
```
Which of the following is considered a noble metal?
```
[A] Aluminium [B] Silver [C] Copper [D] Sodium
```
Which of the following metals is/are available in free state in nature?
```
[A] Gold [B] Silver [C] Platinum [D] All three
```
The formula of siderite is...
```
[A] Fe₂O₃ [B] Fe₃O₄ [C] FeCO₃ [D] FeS₂
```

The formula of bauxite is...

[A] Al₂O₃ [B] Al₂O₃.2H₂O [C] NaAlO₂ [D] Na₂AlF₆

Malachite is an ore of...

[A] iron [B] silver [C] copper [D] calcium

Which of the following is not an ore of calcium?

[A] Limestone [B] Dolomite [C] Gypsum [D] Siderite

The formula of gypsum is...

[A] CaSO₄.2H₂O [B] CaCO₃ [C] CaSO₄.7H₂O [D] Ca(OH)₂

Which of the following methods is based on the difference in densities of ore and impurity?
```
[A] Centrifugation [B] Liquefaction [C] Froth floatation [D] Pulverizing
```
Which of the following ores is concentrated by froth floatation?
```
[A] Bauxite [B] Haematite [C] Copper pyrite [D] Dolomite
```
Sulphide ores are converted to ores containing metal oxide by...
```
[A] calcination [B] liquefaction [C] smelting [D] roasting
```

Calcination is used to convert...

[A] metal carbonate to metal oxide [B] metal oxide to metal carbonate 
[C] calcium to calcium chloride [D] metal sulphide to metal oxide

Oxide of which of the following metals cannot be reduced by carbon?
```
[A] Zinc [B] Iron [C] Magnesium [D] Manganese
```

Which of the following methods is not used for refining of metals?

[A] Electrolysis [B] Liquefaction [C] Froth floatation [D] Fractional crystallization

During electrolytic refining of a metal the insoluble impurities collected at the bottom of the cell form...
```
[A] anode [B] anode mud [C] cathode [D] cathode mud
```

What works as anode in electrolytic refining of a metal?

[A] A rod of impure metal [B] A rod of pure metal [C] Graphite [D] Platinum

What works as cathode in electrolytic refining of a metal?

[A] A rod of impure metal [B] A rod of pure metal [C] Graphite [D] Platinum

Which of the following metals is purified by electrolytic refining?
```
[A] Iron [B] Lead [C] Tin [D] Copper
```

Liquefaction method is used for refining of metals having...

[A] low boiling point [B] high boiling point [C] low melting point [D] high melting point

Which of the following metals is refined by liquefaction method?
```
[A] Copper [B] Aluminium [C] Mercury [D] Tin
```
Which of the following methods uses the principle of fractional crystallization?
```
[A] Froth floatation [B] Liquefaction [C] Zone refining [D] Smelting
```
Which of the following metals is purified by zone refining?
```
[A] Silicon [B] Boron [C] Germanium [D] All three
```
Which of the following is a semi-conductor?
```
[A] Boron [B] Copper [C] Lead [D] Gold
```

The melting point of alumina is...

[A] 1578 K [B] 1875 K [C] 2348 K [D] 3284 K

To bring down the melting point of alumina during Hall-Heroult process, we add ______ and ______.
```
[A] NaCl, CaF₂ [B] Na₃AlF₆, CaF₂ [C] NaCl, Na₃AlF₆ [D] NaOH, NaCl
```
Carbon (graphite) lining of electrolytic cell works as _____ in Hall-Heroult process.
```
[A] anode [B] cathode [C] electrolyte [D] thermal stabilizer
```

Alumina is obtained from bauxite by...

[A] Hall-Heroult process [B] Bayer's process [C] Blast furnace [D] Calcination

In blast furnace, during the manufacture of iron, the temperature in the bottom region is...
```
[A] 1000 K [B] 1173 K [C] 1973 K [D] 2223 K
```
What is the formula of slag formed in blast furnace?
```
[A] Ca₂SiO₃ [B] Na₂SiO₃ [C] Ca₂SiO₂ [D] CaSiO₃
```
In blast furnace, the oxidation of molten iron is prevented by...
```
[A] CO₂ [B] CaCO₃ [C] CaSiO₃ [D] hot air
```

The activity of metals is determined by...

[A] displacement reaction  [B] combination reaction 
[C] decomposition reaction [D] reaction with hydrogen

The most reactive metal is...

[A] sodium [B] potassium [C] calcium [D] zinc

The least reactive metal is...
```
[A] sodium [B] copper [C] gold [D] lead
```
Which of the following is the true order of reactivity of metals?
```
[A] Mg>Al>Zn>Fe [B] Mg> Zn>Al>Fe [C] Al>Mg>Fe>Zn [D] Fe>Zn>Al>Mg
```
Which of the following metals exists in liquid form?
```
[A] Sodium [B] Tin [C] Manganese [D] Gallium
```

Which of the following metals is very soft?

[A] Tin [B] Aluminium [C] Magnesium [D] Potassium

We can prepare about ______ long wire from 1 gram of gold.
```
[A] 500 m [B] 1000 m [C] 2000 m [D] 5000 m
```
Which of the following metals is a poor conductor of heat and electricity?
```
[A] Gold [B] Cobalt [C] Sodium [D] Lead
```

The melting point of iron is...

[A] 1218 K [B] 1281 K [C] 1812 K [D] 2181 K

Generally metals form _____ oxides.

[A] acidic [B] basic [C] neutral [D] acidic and neutral

Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
```
[A] Al₂O₃ [B] Na₂O [C] CaO [D] Fe₂O₃
```
Which of the following metals does not react with cold water?
```
[A] Sodium [B] Potassium [C] Magnesium [D] Calcium
```

Stainless steel contains...

[A] 70% Fe, 10% Cr, 20% Ni [B] 70% Fe, 20% cr, 10% Ni
[C] 20% Fe, 10% Cr, 70% Ni [D] 10% Fe, 20% Cr, 70% Ni

An alloy containing _____ is called amalgam.
```
[A] zinc [B] aluminium [C] mercury [D] tin
```

Brass is an alloy of...

[A] iron and zinc [B] copper and tin [C] iron and nickel [D] copper and zinc

Bronze is an alloy of...

[A] iron and zinc [B] copper and tin [C] iron and nickel [D] copper and zinc

Which of the following alloys is used in preparing surgical instruments?
```
[A] Stainless steel [B] Brass [C] Bronze [D] Magnalium
```

Which alloy is used in preparing scientific balance?

[A] Stainless steel [B] Brass [C] Duralumin [D] Magnalium

22 carat gold contains about _____% gold.
```
[A] 22 [B] 78.4 [C] 86.5 [D] 91.6
```

24 carat gold contains...

[A] 24 parts gold, 2 parts copper [B] 22 parts gold, 2 parts copper 
[C] 24 parts gold, 2 parts silver [D] None of the three

What is the chemical formula of copper glance?
```
[A] CuFeS₂ [B] Cu₂S [C] CuCl₂ [D] Cu(OH)₂
```

Which of the following particles are wetted by turpentine?

[A] Oxide ore particles    [B] Sand particles 
[C] Carbonate ore particles [D] Sulphide ore particles

Which of the following is not a chemical reducing agent?

[A] Sulphur [B] Aluminium [C] Carbon [D] Carbon monoxide

What is the concentration of sodium hydroxide used in Bayer's process?
```
[A] 40% [B] 45% [C] 54% [D] 66%
```
Which of the following metals can be cut with a knife?
```
[A] Magnesium [B] Manganese [C] Antimony [D] Sodium
```

Which metal is used in thermometers?

[A] Mercury [B] Silver [C] Platinum [D] Aluminium

For concentration of ore of which of the following metals is magnetic separation method used?
```
[A] Copper [B] Iron [C] Aluminium [D] Tin
```

The chemical formula of rust is...

[A] FeO [B] Fe₃O₄ [C] Fe₂O₃.xH₂O [D] FeSO₄

A thin layer of _____ is deposited on iron for galvanization.
```
[A] Al [B] Zn [C] Cr [D] Ni
```
Addition of small amount of _____ increases the hardness of iron.
```
[A] C [B] Al [C] Zn [D] Sn
```

Which metal is added to gold used for making ornaments?

[A] Copper [B] Silver [C] Copper or silver [D] Aluminium

Which of the following alloys is used for making statues and medals?
```
[A] Brass [B] Duralumin [C] Magnalium [D] Bronze
```
Which of the following alloy is used in soldering of electric wires?
```
[A] Lead + tin [B] Copper + zinc [C] Zinc + tin [D] Copper + tin
```

Aqueous solution of K₂O is...

[A] acidic [B] basic [C] neutral [D] amphoteric

Which of the following alloys is used for manufacturing pressure c ookers?
```
[A] Brass [B] Duralumin [C] Bronze [D] Magnalium
```

Which phenomenon is seen in electroplating process for copper?

[A] Positive electrode increases 
[B] Positive electrode decreases
[C] The concentration of Cu⁺² increases in the electrolyte
[D] The concentration of Cu⁺² decreases in the electrolyte

ANSWERS

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) C (5) D (6) D (7) B (8) B (9) C (10) C (11) B (12) C (13) C (14) A (15) C (16) C (17) B (18) B (19) D (20) C (21) B (22) C (23) D (24) A (25) A (26) C (27) D (28) A (29) C (30) C (31) B (32) A (33) B (34) D (35) C (36) D (37) C (38) D (39) A (40) C (41) B (42) B (43) B (44) C (45) D (46) C (47) A (48) B (49) C (50) A (51) D (52) D (53) C (54) D (55) C (56) B (57) A (58) C (59) B (60) C (61) D (62) B (63) A (64) D (65) D (66) D (67) B (68) D (69) A (70) B (71) D (72) A (73) B (74) C (75) B (76) A (77) C (78) D (79) A (80) B (81) B (82) B (83) (84) (85) (86) (87) (88) (89) (90) (91) (92) (93) (94) (95) (96) (97) (98) (99) (100)

Wednesday, December 4, 2013

Chapter 9 : NON-METALS

Choose Appropriate Alternative

Which nonmetallic element is in liquid form?

[A] Carbon [B] Hydrogen [C] Bromine [D] Phosphorus

With which of the following elements does carbon not give reaction?

[A] Dichlorine gas [B] Dihydrogen gas [C] Dioxygen gas [D] Dilute HCl acid

Which of the following oxides is of neutral nature?
```
[A] CO₂ [B] SO₂ [C] P₂O₅ [D] N₂O
```
Which of the following gases is insoluble in water?
```
[A] H₂ [B] CO₂ [C] NH₃ [D] SO₂
```
Which of the following gases is used as preservative in fruit juices and jams?
```
[A] NH₃ [B] SO₂ [C] H₂ [D] CO₂
```
Which of the following acids is called the "King of Chemicals"?
```
[A] HNO₃ [B] H₂SO₄ [C] HCl [D] CH₃COOH
```
Which of the following gases is combustible?
```
[A] CO₂ [B] H₂ [C] SO₂ [D] NH₃
```
Which catalyst is used in production of ammonia by Haber's process?
```
[A] Al₂O₃ [B] K₂O [C] V₂O₅ [D] Fe
```

Match correct pairs from Part A and Part B.

[A] a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 [B] a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
[C] a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1 [D] a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1

Match correct pairs from Part A and Part B.

[A] a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 [B] a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
[C] a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 [D] a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

Match correct pairs from Part A and Part B.

[A] a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 [B] a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
[C] a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 [D] a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

There are _____ non-metallic elements.
```
[A] 16 [B] 18 [C] 19 [D] 20
```

The process of preparation of vegetable ghee is called...

[A] hydrogenation [B] hydrolysis [C] oxidation [D] chlorination

_____ is a good conductor of electricity.

[A] Diamond [B] Phosphorus [C] Pure water [D] Graphite

Oxides of nonmetals are...

[A] acidic [B] basic [C] neutral [D] either acidic or neutral

Chlorides of nonmetals are generally...

[A] solid [B] liquid [C] either liquid or gas [D] either solid or gas

Hydrogen was discovered by _____ in 1766.

[A] Archemedes [B] Cavendish [C] Fischer and Tropsch [D] Dalton

Water gas is...

[A] CO + H₂O [B] CO₂ + H₂ [C] CO + H₂ [D] CO₂ + H₂O

Dihydrogen gas easily reduces the oxides of metals...

[A] less active than Zn [B] more active than Zn 
[C] except Zn           [D] of any reactivity

The calorific value of _____ is the highest among fuels.
```
[A] methane [B] hydrogen [C] butane [D] diesel
```

Ammonia is manufactured by ____ process.

[A] Haber's [B] Bayer's [C] Contact [D] Ostwald's

_____ and _____ are used as promoters in Haber's process for ammonia.
```
[A] Al₂O₃, KNO₃ [B] Al₂O₃, NaCl [C] Al₂O₃, K₂O [D] K₂O, KNO₃
```

Aqueous solution ofd ammonia acts as...

[A] a weak acid [B] a weak base [C] a strong acid [D] a strong base

Nitric acid is manufactured from ammonia by...

[A] Haber's process [B] Frasch process [C] Contact process [D] Ostwald's process

The atomic number of sulphur is...
```
[A] 14 [B] 15 [C] 16 [D] 17
```
The electronic configuration of sulphur is...
```
[A] 2,8,4 [B] 2,8,5 [C] 2,8,6 [D] 2,8,7
```
Like carbon,_____ also possesses the property of catenation.
```
[A] nitrogen [B] oxygen [C] sulphur [D] phosphorus
```

Rhombic sulphur is stable at temperatures...

[A] above 369 K [B] below 369 K [C] above 396 K [D] below 396 K

A molecule of sulphur has _____ atoms in it.
```
[A] 4 [B] 5 [C] 6 [D] 8
```
The melting point of sulphur is...
```
[A] 369 K [B] 388 K [C] 396 K [D] 423 K
```
_____ is responsible pollutant gas for acid rain.
```
[A] N₂O [B] CO [C] NO [D] SO₂
```
Which catalyst is used in oxidation of SO₂ to SO₃?
```
[A] Ag₂O [B] Pt [C] Pd [D] V₂O₅
```
Sulphuric acid is manufactured by _____ process.
```
[A] Ostwald [B] Contact [C] Frasch [D] Haber's
```

The formula of oleum is...

[A] H₂S₂O₇ [B] H₂SO₄ [C] H₂S₂O₃ [D] H₃S₃O₇

SO₂ is oxidized to SO₃ during lead-chamber process by...
```
[A] NO [B] N₂O [C] NO₂ [D] N₂O₃
```
In concentrated sulphuric acid the proportion of water is...
```
[A] 98% [B] 90% [C] 10% [D] 2%
```
What is the total number of elements known till today?
```
[A] 110 [B] 114 [C] 99 [D] 119
```
Which of the following is used as electrode in dry cell?
```
[A] Lead [B] Graphite [C] Coal [D] Copper
```
Which of the following is present in protein, hair, wool, onion and garlic?
```
[A] Silicon [B] Sulphur [C] Phosphorus [D] Ammonia
```
Which of the following is used in substances called fungicides?
```
[A] Sulphur [B] Phosphorus [C] Silicon [D] Nitrogen
```
Which of the following nonmetallic elements possesses lustre?
```
[A] Sulphur [B] Phosphorus [C] Iodine [D] Chlorine
```
What is the molecular formula of Galena?
```
[A] ZnS [B] CuFeS₂ [C] Ca(OH)₂ [D] PbS
```

Which property of sulphur is the basis of Frasch process to obtain sulphur?

[A] Low melting point [B] High melting point [C] Low boiling point [D] High boiling point

What is the shape of monoclinic sulphur?

[A] Hexagonal [B] Cubic [C] Needle-like [D] Tetrahedral

What is the shape of rhombic sulphur?

[A] Octahedral [B] Tetrahedral [C] Hexagonal [D] Needle-like

Which of the following is used in vulcanization of rubber?
```
[A] Sulphur [B] Phosphorus [C] Ammonia [D] Hydrogen
```
Which of the following gases is combustible?
```
[A] CO₂ [B] H₂ [C] O₂ [D] NH₃
```
Which of the following is the molecular formula of sulphurous acid?
```
[A] H₂S [B] H₂SO₃ [C] H₂SO₄ [D] H₂S₂O₇
```
Apart from Contact process, which of the following is a method to manufacture sulphuric acid?
```
[A] Haber's process [B] Ostwald's process [C] Lead-Chamber process [D] Fischr's process
```
What is the proportion of sulphuric acid in dilute sulphuric acid?
```
[A] 2% [B] 10% [C] 90% [D] 98%
```

Element 'X' reacts with oxygen to give product 'Y', which on dissolving in water produces acid which turns blue litmus red. Choose the appropriate statement.

[A] X is a nonmetal and Y is a basic oxide.  [B] X is a metal and Y is a basic oxide.
[C] X is a nonmetal and Y is an acidic oxide. [D] X is a metal and Y is an acidic oxide.

When SO₂ gas is passed through decanted solution of lime, it becomes milky due to...
```
[A] CaSO₃ [B] CaCO₃ [C] CuSO₄ [D] CaSO₄
```
In a molecule of sulphur, each atom is bonded to ____ other atoms.
```
[A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 7 [D] 8
```
```
[A]  [B][C]  [D]
```
```
[A] [B] [C]  [D]
```

ANSWERS

(1) C (2) D (3) D (4) A (5) B (6) B (7) B (8) D (9) B (10) D (11) C (12) B (13) A (14) D (15) D (16) C (17) B (18) C (19) A (20) B (21) A (22) C (23) B (24) D (25) C (26) C (27) C (28) B (29) D (30) B (31) D (32) D (33) B (34) A (35) C (36) D (37) B (38) B (39) B (40) A (41) C (42) D (43) A (44) C (45) A (46) A (47) B (48) B (49) C (50) B (51) C (52) A (53) B (54) (55) (56) (57) (58) (59) (60)

Wednesday, November 27, 2013

Chapter 10 : MINERAL COAL AND MINERAL OIL

Choose Appropriate Alternative

Which is the primary state in transformation of coal?
```
[A] Lignite [B] Bitumen [C] Anthracite [D] Peat
```

What is the matured form of coal?

[A] Lignite [B] Bitumen [C] Anthracite [D] Peat

Which type of coal does not produce smoke or odour when burnt?
```
[A] Lignite [B] Bitumen [C] Anthracite [D] Peat
```
Which of the following is not obtained as a component during destructive distillation of coal?
```
[A] Coal gas [B] Methane [C] Coal tar [D] Coke
```
Which of the following is used in the production of water gas?
```
[A] Coke [B] Coal tar [C] Coal gas [D] Ammonia
```

Water gas is a mixture of...

[A] carbon dioxide and hydrogen  [B] carbon and hydrogen 
[C] carbon monoxide and hydrogen [D] ammonia and hydrogen

Which gas is filled at high pressure in cylinders of house-hold cooking gas?
```
[A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Propane [D] Butane
```
Which component obtained during refining of petroleum is used as a solvent in petrochemicals?
```
[A] Naphtha [B] Kerosene [C] Tar [D] Petroleum coke
```
Which of the following is used in petromax to obtain light?
```
[A] Petrol [B] Diesel [C] Kerosene [D] Butane
```
Which is the chief hydrocarbon in natural gas?
```
[A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Propane [D] Butane
```
What is the molecular formula of ethene?
```
[A] C₂H₆ [B] C₂H₂ [C] C₂H₄ [D] CH₄
```

What is the general formula of alkyne series?

[A] C_nH_2n [B] C_nH_2n-2 [C] C_nH_2n+2 [D] C_nH_n

What is the commercial name of ethyne?

[A] Acrylic acid [B] Acetylene [C] Ethane [D] Oxyacetylene

C₃H₈ is the molecular formula of...

[A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Propane [D] Butane

What is the angle between any two bonds in methane molecule?
```
[A] 105° 54' [B] 109° 28' [C] 119° 28' [D] 190° 28'
```

Which of the following is called a fossil fuel?

[A] Mineral coal [B] Wood [C] Cowdung cake [D] All the given

From where is mineral coal obtained in Gujarat?

[A] Ankleshwar [B] Khambhat [C] Thangadh [D] Kalol

What is used as fuel in jet-planes?

[A] Gasoline [B] Diesel oil [C] Kerosene [D] All the given

Peat coal contains about _____ % carbon.
```
[A] 28 [B] 30 [C] 78 [D] 86
```
The calorific value of lignite is about _____ kJ/g.
```
[A] 22 [B] 27 [C] 30 [D] 40
```
How much carbon does bituminous coal contain?
```
[A] 28-30% [B] 30-45% [C] 56-68% [D] 78-86%
```

What is the heat energy of bituminous coal?

[A] 27 kJ/g [B] 30 kJ/g [C] 33 kJ/g [D] 35 kJ/g

What is the carbon content of anthracite coal?
```
[A] 28-30% [B] 30-49% [C] 78-86% [D] 94-98%
```

What is the calorific value of anthracite coal?

[A] 27 kJ/g [B] 30 kJ/g [C] 33 kJ/g [D] 35 kJ/g

Coke contains about ______ % carbon.
```
[A] 50 [B] 70 [C] 80 [D] 96
```
The chief component of coal gas is...
```
[A] CO [B] CO₂ [C] H₂ [D] CH₄
```

The first petroleum well was dug at...

[A] California [B] Alaska [C] Kuwait [D] Titusville

The first petroleum well was dug at _____ in India in 1867.
```
[A] Makum [B] Ranchi [C] Ankleshwar [D] Allepy
```
The general formula of paraffin (aliphatic) hydrocarbons is...
```
[A] C_nH_2n-2 [B] C_nH_2n+2 [C] C_nH_2n[D] C_nH_n
```
The general formula of naphthalene hydrocarbons is...
```
[A] C_nH_2n-2 [B] C_nH_2n+2 [C] C_nH_2n[D] C_nH_2n-6
```
>The general formula of aromatic hydrocarbons is...
```
[A] C_nH_2n-2 [B] C_nH_2n+2 [C] C_nH_2n[D] C_nH_2n-6
```

The boiling range of gasoline is...

[A] 293-343 K [B] 343-473 K [C] 383-523 K [D] 473-523 K

The hydrocarbons present in gasoline are from...

[A] C₁ to C₄ [B] C₅ to C₁₂ [C] C₁₂ to C₁₅ [D] C₁₅ to C₂₀

The boiling range of kerosene is...

[A] 293-343 K [B] 343-473 K [C] 473-548 K [D] above 523 K

The hydrocarbons present in kerosene are from...

[A] C₁ to C₄ [B] C₅ to C₈ [C] C₉ to C₁₂ [D] C₁₂ to C₁₅

The hydrocarbons present in diesel are from...

[A] C₅ to C₈ [B] C₉ to C₁₂ [C] C₁₂ to C₁₅ [D] C₁₅ to C₁₈

The boiling range of diesel oil is...

[A] 533-613 K [B] 473-548 K [C] 393-473 K [D] 303-393 K

Which of the following fractions is deposited on the inner side of the furnace during refining of petroleum?
```
[A] Naphtha [B] Lubricating oil [C] Petroleum coke [D] Tar
```

The octane number is the measure of _____ of gasoline.

[A] calorific value [B] impurity [C] knocking property [D] burning pressure

The octane number of n-heptane is...
```
[A] 0 [B] 50 [C] 90 [D] 100
```
The octane number of iso-octane is...
```
[A] 0 [B] 50 [C] 90 [D] 100
```
The efficiency of a sample of fuel is similar to that of a mixture containing 25% n-heptane and remaining iso-octane. Then its octane number is...
```
[A] 75 [B] 25 [C] 125 [D] 1/25
```

To increase the octane number of gasoline ______ is added to it.

[A] kerosene [B] tetraethyl lead [C] lead oxide [D] petroleum coke

During aromatization of n-hexane to benzene ______ is produced as an intermediate.
```
[A] iso-hexane [B] iso-octane [C] cyclohexane [D] phenol
```

Cracking of n-octane gives n-butane and ______.

[A] iso-butane [B] but-1-ene [C] but-2-ene [D] iso-pentane

To detect gas leakage from LPG cylinder, a foul smelling substance _____ is added to LPG.
```
[A] tetraethyl lead [B] H₂S [C] methyl mercaptan [D] methyl chloride
```
Carbon belongs to the _____ group in periodic table.
```
[A] 12th [B] 13th [C] 14th [D] 15th
```

n-Butane and 2-methyl propane are...

[A] allotropes [B] isotopes [C] isotones [D] isomers

The bonds formed by sharing of electrons with two unpaired electrons with opposite spins are called...
```
[A] α-bonds [B] β-bonds [C] σ-bonds [D] π-bonds
```
In homologous series, each member of the series differs from its adjacent member by...
```
[A] CH [B] CH₂ [C] C₂H [D] CH₃
```
The difference between molecular masses of any two successive members of a homologous series is...
```
[A] 12 u [B]  14 u [C] 16 u [D] 20 u
```

Which of the following are unsaturated hydrocarbons?

[A] Alkanes [B] Alkenes [C] Alkynes [D] Both alkenes and alkynes

Sodalime is a mixture of...

[A] CaO and NaOH [B] Ca(OH)₂ and NaOH [C] CaO and NaCl [D] Ca(OH)₂ and NaCl

In sodalime the proportion of CaO and NaOH is in the ratio...
```
[A] 3:1 [B] 1:3 [C] 1:2 [D] 2:1
```
Cracking of hexane gives _____ as one of the products.
```
[A] Ethene [B] Ethane [C] Butene [D] Propene
```

Dehydration of ethanol produces...

[A] Ethane [B] Ethene [C] Ethyne [D] Methanol

In addition reaction of ethyne with dihydrogen gas to obtain ethane _____ is used as catalyst.
```
[A] V₂O₅ [B] KMnO₄ [C] Raney nickel [D] HCl
```
In oxyacetylene flame for welding of metals, _____ is used.
```
[A] ethyne [B] ethene [C] ethane [D] ethyl chloride
```
Which of the following types of coal is used to obtain coal gas?
```
[A] Peat [B] Lignite [C] Bitumen [D] Anthracite
```
Which brown coloured hard substance is left as residue during destructive distillation of mineral coal?
```
[A] Coke [B] Coal tar [C] Charcoal [D] Asphalt
```

Which of the following is used in water-proofing?

[A] Asphalt [B] Diesel [C] Lubricating oil [D] Naphtha

Which of the following is used for preparing electrodes (for batteries) and carbon tiles?
```
[A] Petroleum coke [B] Tar [C] Naphtha [D] Asphalt
```
How much gasoline is obtained generally from mineral oil?
```
[A] 50% [B] 33% [C] 27% [D] 18%
```

The chief constituent of LPG is...

[A] methane [B] ethane [C] propane [D] butane

The chief constituent of CNG is...

[A] methane [B] ethane [C] propane [D] butane

What is the general formula of alkane series?

[A] C_nH_2n [B] C_nH_2n-2 [C] C_nH_2n+2 [D] C_nH_n

What is the general formula of alkene series?

[A] C_nH_2n [B] C_nH_2n-2 [C] C_nH_2n+2 [D] C_nH_n

Which type of hybridization is found in a methane molecule?
```
[A] SP¹ [B] SP² [C] SP³ [D] S²P
```

What is the main component of gobar gas?

[A] methane [B] ethane [C] propane [D] butane

Which of the following is used in the production of water gas?
```
[A] coke [B] coal tar [C] coal gas [D] ammonia
```
How many covalent bonds are there between carbon atoms in the molecule of acetylene?
```
[A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 3 [D] 4
```
Which of the following is obtained by cooling the lubricating oil fraction obtained during refining of petroleum?
```
[A] Naphtha [B] Coke [C] Wax [D] Tar
```
What is the atomic number of carbon?
```
[A] 4 [B] 6 [C] 8 [D] 14
```

The shape of the methane molecule is...

[A] hexagonal [B] tetrahedral [C] octahedral [D] rectangular

Which of the following compounds possesses cyclic structure?
```
[A] Butane [B] Benzene [C] n-Hexane [D] Iso-octane
```

The mineral oil obtained from Pennsylvania of america is of the type containing...

[A] paraffin hydrocarbons [B] naphthalene hydrocarbons
[C] aromatic compounds    [D] asphalt

The pink colour of potassium permanganate disappears when ____ is added to it.
```
[A] methane [B] ethene [C] ethyne [D] ethene or ethyne
```
In _____ reactions, straight chain hydrocarbons are converted to cyclic compounds.
```
[A] isomerization [B] dehydrogenation [C] aromatization [D] cracking
```
```
[A] [B] [C]  [D]
```
```
[A] [B] [C]  [D]
```

ANSWERS

(1) D (2) C (3) C (4) B (5) A (6) C (7) D (8) A (9) C (10) A (11) C (12) B (13) B (14) C (15) B (16) A (17) C (18) C (19) A (20) B (21) D (22) B (23) D (24) C (25) C (26) A (27) D (28) A (29) B (30) C (31) D (32) B (33) B (34) C (35) D (36) D (37) A (38) C (39) C (40) A (41) D (42) A (43) B (44) C (45) B (46) C (47) C (48) D (49) C (50) B (51) B (52) D (53) A (54) B (55) A (56) B (57) C (58) A (59) B (60) A (61) A (62) A (63) D (64) D (65) A (66) C (67) A (68) C (69) A (70) A (71) C (72) C (73) B (74) B (75) B (76) A (77) D (78) C (79) (80)

Sunday, November 24, 2013

Chapter 11 : ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

Choose Appropriate Alternative

The compound possessing (-CHO) functional group is called...
```
[A] an amide [B]  an aldehyde [C]  a ketone [D] an alcohol
```
Which functional group is possessed by carboxylic acid compounds?
```
[A] >C=O [B] -COOH [C] -CHO [D] -OH
```
With which group is suffix 'ol' attached in the nomenclature of organic compounds?
```
[A] -CHO [B] >CO [C] -OH [D] -X
```
Which functional group is there in methyl ethanoate?
```
[A] Alcohol [B] Halide [C] Ketone [D] Ester
```
Which of the following compounds is obtained from molasses by fermentation?
```
[A] Chloromethane [B] Ethanol [C] Acetone [D] Methanal
```

The solution of ethanol containing 5% water is called...

[A] beer [B] varnish [C] rectified spirit [D] denatured alcohol

What is the molecular formula of formalin?

[A] HCOOH [B] HCOOCH₃ [C] HCHO [D] HCOOC₂H₅

Which substance is obtained by reduction of methanal?

[A] Ethanol [B] CO₂ and O₂ [C] Methanol [D] Methanoic acid

Which of the following is prepared by Fischer-Tropsch method?
```
[A] Acetic acid [B] Acetaldehyde [C] Acetone [D] Ethanol
```

Which of the following is a use of propanone?

[A] As nail polish remover [B] As an antiseptic 
[C] As an antibiotic     [D] As a preservative

The reaction between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid in presence of concentrated sulphuric acid is called...
```
[A] hydrolysis [B] β-elimination [C] saponification [D] esterification
```
A compound with this functional group has minimum three carbon atoms.
```
[A] -COOH [B] -CHO [C] >CO [D] -CONH₂
```

Which of the following is the monomer of polythene?

[A] CH₃-CH₃ [B] CH₂=CH₂ [C] CH₃-CH=CH₂ [D] HC≡CH

Which of the following is a use of acetic acid?

[A] Preparation of vinegar [B] In white lead [C] As a reagent [D] All three

Which of the following is used in conveyer belts?
```
[A] Polythene [B] PVC [C] TEFLON [D] Neoprene
```

What does 'P' stand for in IUPAC?

[A] Pure [B] Physical [C] Primary [D] Proposed

What is the IUPAC name of methyl acetate?

[A] Methanal [B] Methyl ethanoate [C] Ethyl methanoate [D] Ethanoic acid

What is the formula of methyl acetate (methyl ethanoate)?

[A] CH₃COOC₂H₅ [B] CH₃COOCH₃[C] C₂H₅COOCH₃ [D] CH₃COCH₃

The general formula of alcohol series is...

[A] C_nH_2nOH [B] C_nH_nOH [C] C_nH_2n+1OH [D] C_nH_2n+2OH

Which of the following is the true formula of an alcohol with 6 carbon atoms?
```
[A] C₆H₁₁OH [B] C₆H₁₂OH [C] C₆H₁₃OH [D] C₆H₁₄OH
```

Biological catalysts are called...

[A] hormones [B] reagents [C] coagulants [D] enzymes

______ converts ______ of milk into ______.

[A] Lactase, lactic acid, lactose [B] Lactose, lactic acid, lactase 
[C] Lactic acid, lactose, lactase [D] Lactase, lactose, lactic acid

Fermentation of grape juice to ethanol is aided by the enzymes present in...
```
[A] grape juice [B] yeast [C] lactobacillus [D] atmosphere
```
Sugar in molasses is converted to glucose (fructose) in presence of enzyme...
```
[A] invertase [B] zymase [C] lactase [D] amylase
```
Fermentation of glucose (fructose) to alcohol takes place in presence of...
```
[A] invertase [B] zymase [C] lactase [D] amylase
```

Absolute alcohol can be obtained by...

[A] fermentation [B] evaporation [C] distillation [D] membrane technology

Hydration of ethene gives...

[A] ethane [B] ethanol [C] ethanoic acid [D] polythene

The boiling point of pure ethanol is...
```
[A] 311 K [B] 331 K [C] 351 K [D] 371 K
```

When ethanol reacts with sodium metal, _____ gas is produced.

[A] Dihydrogen [B] Carbon dioxide [C] Carbon monoxide [D] Dioxygen

Oxidation of ethanol in presence of alkaline KMNO₄ yields...

[A] ethanal [B] ethanoic acid [C] propanol [D] ethyl ethanoate

Which toxic substance is added to ethanol to prevent its consumption?
```
[A] Methanol [B] Acetic acid [C] Methanal [D] Mercaptan
```
Consumption of ethanol in excess causes a disease called ______ of liver.
```
[A] fibrosis [B] lymphosys [C] cirrhosis [D] carcinoma
```
In the liver of alcohol-addict the amount of _____ enzyme increases greatly.
```
[A] P-540 [B] P-405 [C] P-504 [D] P-450
```

In which of the following compounds is carbonyl group present?

[A] Aldehydes [B] Ketones [C] Esters [D] Both aldehydes and ketones

Oxidation of methanol in presence of catalyst______ gives methanal.
```
[A] Ag₂O [B] Pt [C] Pd [D] Ni
```
The boiling point of methanal (formaldehyde) is...
```
[A] 293 K [B] 351 K [C] 253 K [D] 311 K
```

Which of the following can be used as a confirmatory test for aldehydes?

[A] Silver-mirror test [B] Fehling's test [C] Benedict's test [D] All three

Reduction of methanal to methanol is carried out in presence of the catalyst...
```
[A] Pt [B] Pd [C] Ni [D] NaBH₄
```
Which of the following is a monomer of bakelite and melamine?
```
[A] Isoprene [B] Methanal [C] Ethanal [D] Propanone
```
Which catalyst is used in the preparation of acetone by Fischer-Tropsch process?
```
[A] Ag₂O [B] Pd [C] CoO [D] Alkaline KMNO₄
```
The boiling point of propanone is...
```
[A] 239 K [B] 309 K [C] 351 K [D] 329 K
```

NaBH₄ (or LiAlH₄) reduces propanone to...

[A] propan-1-ol [B] propan-2-ol [C] propanal [D] propanoic acid

Which of the following is the formula of propanone cyanohydrin?
Which catalyst is used in the preparation of acetic acid from methanol?
```
[A] CoO [B] Ag₂O [C] V₂O₅ [D] I₂-Rh
```
The boiling point of ethanoic acid is...
```
[A] 293 K [B] 329 K [C] 351 K [D] 391 K
```

The monomer of natural rubber is...

[A] chloroprene [B] isoprene [C] neoprene [D] 1-chloroethene

Flooring tiles are prepared from...

[A] polythene [B] TEFLON [C] polyvinyl chloride [D] polybutadiene

2-chloro-1,3-diene is the monomer of...

[A] PVC [B] TEFLON [C] neoprene [D] natural rubber

The elastic character of natural rubber is maintained between...
```
[A] 283-333 K [B] 293-353 K [C] 273-353 K [D] 313-343 K
```
To increase the rate of reaction during vulcanization of rubber, ______ is added.
```
[A] lead [B] sulphur [C] ZnO [D] PbCO₃
```

During saponification reaction, what is obtained as by-product?

[A] Glycerol [B] Ethanol [C] Sodium Ethoxide [D] Sodium carbonate

Which of the following is not a functional group containing oxygen?
```
[A] Alcohol [B] Aldehyde [C] Ketone [D] Halide
```

The fermentation process to manufacture ethanol is...

[A] an aerobic process       [B] an anaerobic process
[C] a polymerization process [D] a catalytic aerobic process

The IUPAC name of acetic acid is...

[A] methanoic acid [B] ethanoic acid [C] propanoic acid [D] vinegar

Ethylethanoate is...

[A] an alcohol [B] an acid [C] an ester [D] a ketone

In aldehydes, the carbonyl group is attached to...

[A] one hydrogen and one oxygen      [B] two alkyl groups 
[C] one hydrogen and one alkyl group [D] one oxygen and one alkyl group

What is vinegar?

[A] Methanol [B] Ethanol [C] Formic acid [D] Acetic acid

An organic acid + an alcohol ----> ______ + water

[A] An aldehyde [B] a ketone [C] an ester [D] a carboxylic acid

The enzyme which converts milk into curd is...

[A] lactase [B] invertase [C] zymase [D] cellulase

Which of the following is not an oxidizing agent?

[A] NaBH₄ [B] KMNO₄ [C] Cr₂O₃ [D] Fehling's solution

Which of the following is a condensation polymer?
```
[A] PVC [B] Nylon [C] Natural rubber [D] TEFLON
```
Which gas is produced during fermentation?
```
[A] CO [B] CO₂ [C] Cl₂ [D] O₂
```
Which of the following compounds has more reactivity?
```
[A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Ethene [D] Ethyne
```
Which functional group do carboxylic acid compounds have?
```
[A] >C=O [B] -COOH [C] -CHO [D] -OH
```
What is the name of the aldehyde corresponding to butane?
```
[A] Butyric acid [B] Butanone [C] Butanal [D] Butanol
```
The names of the compounds with functional group _____ end with suffix 'ol'.
```
[A] -CHO [B] >C=O [C] -NH₂ [D] -OH
```

What is the molecular formula of acetone?

[A] CH₃OH [B] CH₃COCH₃ [C] CH₃CH₂CHO [D] CH₃CH₂COOH

What is the molecular formula of formalin?

[A] HCOOH [B] HCOOCH₃ [C] HCHO [D] HCOOC₂H₅

Which acid is present in curd?

[A] Lactic acid [B] Formic acid [C] Acetic acid [D] Citric acid

A person loses his eye-sight if he consumes ethanol containing toxic substance______.
```
[A] Formalin [B] Vinegar [C] Propanol [D] Methanol
```

What is obtained by reduction of methanal?

[A] Methanol [B] Ethanol [C] Ethanoic acid [D] Ethene

Which of the following is used to prepare milk bags?
```
[A] Polythene [B] PVC [C] Nylon [D] TEFLON
```
Which functional group is attached with hydrocarbon part in soap?
```
[A] -SO₃K [B] SO₃Na [C] -COONa [D] -COOH
```
Which of the following is used to prepare water pipes?
```
[A] Polythene [B] PVC [C] Nylon [D] TEFLON
```
Which chemical is used to preserve the residues of dead animals?
```
[A] Methanol [B] Ethanol [C] Formalin [D] Acetic acid
```

Water gas is a mixture of ...

[A] CO and N₂ [B] CO and O₂ [C] CO₂ and H₂ [D] CO and H₂

Which functional group is attached with hydrocarbon part in detergent?
```
[A] -SO₃K [B] SO₃Na [C] -COONa [D] -COOH
```
Which of the following ions is present in hard water?
```
[A] Cu²⁺ [B] Pb²⁺ [C] Mg²⁺ [D] Al³⁺ 
```

Which type of polymer is polystyrene?

[A] Addition [B] Condensation [C] Bipolymer [D] Cyclic polymer

Which of the following is used as a bio-polymer for taking stitches after surgery?
```
[A] Dextran [B] Nylon [C] Polyester [D] Acrylic fibre
```

Polyamide is also known as...

[A] Polyester [B] Nylon [C] Acrylic fibre [D] TEFLON

Who invented vulcanized rubber?

[A] Fischer-Tropsch [B] Maxwell [C] Haber [D] Charles Goodyear

_____ is obtained as a gas at room temperature.

[A] Ethanol [B] Ethanoic acid [C] Methanal [D] Propanone

How much sulphur is added in rubber to obtain vulcanised rubber for making tyres?
```
[A] 5% [B] 10% [C] 15% [D] 20%
```
```
[A][B][C][D]
```

ANSWERS

(1) B (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) B (6) C (7) C (8) C (9) C (10) A (11) D (12) C (13) B (14) D (15) D (16) A (17) B (18) B (19) C (20) C (21) D (22) D (23) B (24) A (25) B (26) D (27) B (28) C (29) A (30) B (31) A (32) C (33) D (34) D (35) A (36) C (37) D (38) B (39) B (40) C (41) D (42) B (43) A (44) D (45) D (46) B (47) C (48) C (49) A (50) C (51) A (52) D (53) B (54) B (55) C (56) C (57) D (58) C (59) A (60) A (61) B (62) B (63) D (64) B (65) C (66) D (67) B (68) C (69) A (70) D (71) A (72) A (73) C (74) B (75) C (76) D (77) B (78) C (79) A (80) A (81) B (82) D (83) C (84) A (85) (86) (87) (88) (89) (90)

Monday, November 18, 2013

Chapter 12 : NUTRITION AND RESPIRATION

Choose Appropriate Alternative

Which of the following types of organism has the longest small intestine?
```
[A] Carnivores [B] Omnivores [C] Herbivores [D] Autotrophs
```

The process of obtaining food by amoeba is known as...

[A] Dialysis [B] Cytokinesis [C] Phagocytosis [D] Amoebiosis

Which organism possesses parasitic mode of nutrition?

[A] Penicillium [B] Plasmodium [C] Paramoecium [D] Euglena

Which one of the following organisms has saprophytic mode of nutrition?
```
[A] Mushroom [B] Malarial parasite [C] Leech [D] Lice
```
The length of small intestine in an adult human being is about...
```
[A] 4.5 m [B] 1.5 m [C] 3.5 m [D] 6.5 m
```
Where does the process of digestion of food start in human being?
```
[A] Stomach [B] Food canal [C] Mouth [D] Small intestine
```

In which organ is the process of digestion in humans completed?

[A] Oesophagus [B] Small intestine [C] Stomach [D] Large intestine

By which of the following is bile secreted in human digestive system?
```
[A] Pancreas [B] Liver [C] Kidney [D] Stomach
```

The autotrophic nutrition requires...

[A] carbon dioxide and water [B] chlorophyll [C] sunlight [D] all of the above

In human digestive system, which organs secrete enzyme pepsin and trypsin respectively?

[A] Pancreas and liver        [B] Stomach and salivary gland 
[C] Pancreas and gall bladder [D] Stomach and pancreas

Which of the following organisms can live without oxygen?
```
[A] Amoeba [B] Sheep [C] Yeast [D] Leech
```
During respiration, the exchange of gases takes place in...
```
[A] bronchi [B] alveoli [C] bronchioles [D] trachea
```
In which of the following organisms, the gaseous exchange during respiration does not take place through cell membrane or skin?
```
[A] Ray fish [B] Leech [C] Earthworm [D] Amoeba
```

Autotrophic organisms obtain nutrition by the process of...

[A] photosynthesis [B] nitrification [C] respiration [D] absorption

During cellular respiration...

[A] food is digested [B] food is absorbed [C] energy is released [D] energy is absorbed

Autotrophic means...

[A] self-control [B] self-nutrition [C] self-protection [D] nonliving

What is used to confirm the presence of starch?

[A] Alcohol [B] Sulphuric acid [C] Iodine [D] Chlorophyll

The opening and closing of stomata are controlled by...
```
[A] chlorophyll [B] guard cells [C] sunlight [D] leaf
```
What is used for removing chlorophyll from a green leaf?
```
[A] Alcohol [B] Sulphuric acid [C] Sunlight [D] Iodine
```
Organisms obtaining nutrition from dead and decaying matter are called...
```
[A] phagocytes [B] parasites [C] autotrophs [D] saprophytes
```

______ obtains parasitic nutrition.

[A] Locust [B] Cuscuta [C] Mushroom [D] Earthworm

The mode of nutrition in higher animals is...

[A] parasitic [B] saprophytic [C] autotrophic [D] holozoic

Which of the following is an omnivore?
```
[A] Goat [B] Tiger [C] Rat [D] Lion
```

The mode of nutrition in amoeba is...

[A] parasitic [B] saprophytic [C] holozoic [D] autotrophic

Which enzyme is secreted by salivary glands?

[A] Amylase [B] Pepsin [C] Invertase [D] Trypsin

What does enzyme amylase do?

[A] Converts glucose to starch [B] Converts starch to maltose
[C] Converts starch to protein [D] Converts proteins to amino acids

Which of the following is not a component of gastric juice?

[A] Hydrochloric acid [B] Pepsinogen  [C] Nitric acid [D] Mucus

Enzyme pepsin digests...

[A] starch [B] cellulose [C] lipids [D] proteins

The small intestine receives secretions from...

[A] liver [B] pancreas [C] both liver and pancreas [D] gall bladder

Bile secreted by liver is...

[A] alkaline [B] acidic [C] neutral [D] both alkaline and acidic

Pancreatic juice contains...

[A] amylase [B] trypsin [C] lipase [D] all three

Which enzyme helps in digestion of fat?

[A] Amylase [B] Trypsin [C] Lipase [D] Both amylase and trypsin

In holozoic nutrition ______ is the last step involved.

[A] digestion [B] absorption [C] assimilation [D] ingestion

The process of releasing energy from food is called...

[A] digestion [B] nutrition [C] assimilation [D] respiration

The energy released during respiration is stored in...
```
[A] ATP [B] mitochondria [C] lungs [D] cell nucleus
```
During anaerobic respiration, glucose molecules are broken down to _____ in animal muscle cells.
```
[A] ethanol [B] lactic acid [C] ethylene [D] glycogen
```
In plants, the end products of anaerobic respiration are CO₂ and...
```
[A] ethanol [B] lactic acid [C] water [D] starch
```

Aerobic respiration takes place in...

[A] cytoplasm [B] mitochondria [C] both cytoplasm and mitochondria [D] lungs

Anaerobic respiration takes place in...

[A] cytoplasm [B] mitochondria [C] both cytoplasm and mitochondria [D] lungs

Which of the following parts of plants perform respiration?
```
[A] Roots [B] Stem [C] Leaves [D] All three
```

In woody plants, respiratory gaseous exchange in stems takes place through...

[A] stomata [B] lenticels [C] both stomata and lenticels [D] specific tissues

Respiration in amoeba occurs through...

[A] gills [B] pseudopodia [C] cell membrane [D] vacuole

Earthworm respires through...

[A] trachea [B] lungs [C] skin [D] cilia

Which of the following organisms does not use gills for respiration?
```
[A] Fish [B] Euglena [C] Prawn [D] Crab
```

______ use gills for respiration.

[A] Paramoecium [B] Earthworm [C] Euglena [D] Sepia

______ prevents food from entering trachea.

[A] Glottis [B] Epiglottis [C] Mucus [D] Pharynx

______ plays an important role in breathing.

[A] Diaphragm [B] Alveoli [C] Trachea [D] Glottis

Which process is involved in respiratory gaseous exchange?
```
[A] Swallowing [B] Diffusion [C] Oxidation [D] Glycolysis
```

The living organisms obtain nutrition from...

[A] energy [B] food [C] environment [D] sunlight

During which process energy is released from the absorbed food?

[A] Respiration [B] Nutrition [C] Photosynthesis [D] Chemosynthesis

Which of the following processes is responsible for the change in the size of the organism?
```
[A] Reproduction [B] Excretion [C] Movement [D] Growth
```
The organisms which can synthesize their own food from natural inorganic substances are called...
```
[A] autotrophs [B] heterotrophs [C] saprophytes [D] herbivores
```

Autotrophic organisms possess ______ pigment.

[A] haemoglobin [B] melanin [C] chlorophyll [D] phenolphthalin

Which inorganic substances are used by autotrophs to synthesize food in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll?
```
[A] CO₂ and O₂ [B] CO₂ and NO₂[C] CO₂ and H₂O [D] CO₂ and H₂
```

Apart from green plants photosynthesis is also seen in...

[A] euglena [B] volvox [C] mushroom [D] both euglena and volvox

We derive energy from the food which is stored in the body as...
```
[A] starch [B] glucose [C] glycogen [D] lactose
```
In which of the following parts of the plants is photosynthesis seen to occur mostly?
```
[A] Leaves [B] Roots [C] Stem [D] Flowers
```

The products of photosynthesis are...

[A] CO₂ and O₂[B] CO₂ and H₂O [C] Glucose and O₂ [D] CO₂ and glucose

What type of energy conversion takes place during photosynthesis?

[A] Chemical energy to light energy [B] Light energy to chemical energy
[C] Light energy to heat energy    [D] Light energy to atomic energy

During photosynthesis carbohydrates are formed by _______ of CO₂.
```
[A] oxidation [B] reduction [C] carboxylation [D] hydrolysis
```

The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by...

[A] epidermal cells [B] epithelial cells [C] lenticels [D] guard cells

The mode of nutrition in which one organism obtains nutrition from other organisms is known as...
```
[A] autotrophic nutrition [B] heterothrophic nutrition 
[C] saprophytic nutrition [D] symbiosis
```
When one living organism depends on another living organism for nutrition, the mode of nutrition is called...
```
[A] parasitic nutrition [B] saprophytic nutrition [C] symbiosis [D] holozoic nutrition
```

Which of the following is the correct order for process of nutrition?

[A] Digestion, absorption, assimilation, egestion 
[B] Absorption, assimilation, egestion, ingestion 
[C] Ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation
[D] Digestion, absorption, ingestion, egestion

Amoeba uses ______ for ingestion of food.

[A] tantacles [B] pseudopodia [C] cilia [D] oral opening

In amoeba, the absorption of digested food takes place in...

[A] cytoplasm [B] cell membrane [C] food vacuole [D] nucleus

Which of the following is the correct order of human digestive organs?

[A] Mouth, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine 
[B] Stomach, large intestine, small intestine, oesophagus, mouth
[C] Mouth, stomach, oesophagus, large intestine, small intestine
[D] Mouth, small intestine, stomach, large intestine, oesophagus

In which organ does the first digestion of starch occur in humans?
```
[A] Stomach [B] Small intestine [C] Large intestine [D] Mouth
```
Approximately for how much time does food remain in stomach?
```
[A] 30 minutes [B] 3 hours [C] 6 hours [D] 8 hours
```

What is the nature of gastric juice?

[A] Acidic [B] Alkaline [C] Neutral [D] Basic

In humans, the process of digestion of food ends in...

[A] stomach [B] small intestine [C] large intestine [D] liver

Fats are broken into small globules by...

[A] bile salt [B] hormones [C] pepsin [D] amylase

Which of the following converts starch to glucose, proteins to amino acids and fats to glycerol?
```
[A] Gastric juice [B] Bile salts [C] Intestinal juice [D] Pepsinogen
```

Where are the nutrients of the digested food absorbed?

[A] In small intestine [B] In stomach [C] In large intestine [D] In oesophagus

Which type of reaction is respiration?

[A] Oxidation [B] Reduction [C] Hydrolysis [D] Pyrolysis

During glycolysis, glucose is converted to...

[A] starch [B] cellulose [C] pyruvic acid [D] CO₂

How many ATP molecules are produced after complete oxidation of a glucose molecule?
```
[A] 2 [B] 8 [C] 18 [D] 38
```
How many ATP molecules are produced from one molecule of glucose during anaerobic respiration?
```
[A] 2 [B] 8 [C] 18 [D] 38
```

Which of the following functions is carried out by stomata?

[A] Photosynthesis [B] Respiration [C] Exchange of gases [D] Absorption of water

The first and the last organs of human respiratory system are...

[A] Nostrils, lungs [B] Nasal cavity, lungs [C] Buccal cavity, trachea [D] Pharynx, trachea

Which of the following shows anaerobic phase of aerobic respiration?

[A] Gluconeogenesis [B] Respiration [C] Glycolysis [D] Both respiration and glycolysis

```
[A][B][C][D]
```

ANSWERS

(1) C (2) C (3) B (4) A (5) D (6) C (7) B (8) B (9) D (10) D (11) C (12) B (13) A (14) A (15) C (16) B (17) C (18) B (19) A (20) D (21) B (22) D (23) C (24) C (25) A (26) B (27) C (28) D (29) C (30) A (31) D (32) C (33) C (34) D (35) A (36) B (37) A (38) C (39) A (40) D (41) B (42) C (43) C (44) B (45) D (46) B (47) A (48) B (49) B (50) A (51) D (52) A (53) C (54) C (55) D (56) C (57) A (58) C (59) B (60) B (61) D (62) B (63) A (64) C (65) B (66) A (67) A (68) D (69) B (70) A (71) C (72) A (73) C (74) A (75) A (76) C (77) D (78) A (79) C (80) A (81) C (82) (83) (84) (85) (86) (87) (88) (89) (90)

Multiple Choice Questions in Science

To the visitors of blog

Friday, December 27, 2013

Chapter 5 : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

Choose Appropriate Alternative

ANSWERS

Friday, December 20, 2013

Chapter 6 : UNIVERSE

Choose Appropriate Alternative

ANSWERS

Sunday, December 15, 2013

Chapter 7 : ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

Choose Appropriate Alternative

ANSWERS

Sunday, December 8, 2013

Chapter 8 : METALS

Choose Appropriate Alternative

ANSWERS

Wednesday, December 4, 2013

Chapter 9 : NON-METALS

Choose Appropriate Alternative

ANSWERS

Wednesday, November 27, 2013

Chapter 10 : MINERAL COAL AND MINERAL OIL

Choose Appropriate Alternative

ANSWERS

Sunday, November 24, 2013

Chapter 11 : ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

Choose Appropriate Alternative

ANSWERS

Monday, November 18, 2013

Chapter 12 : NUTRITION AND RESPIRATION

Choose Appropriate Alternative

ANSWERS

Blog Archive

CLIXSENSE