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I have created this blog for students of class 10 of Gujarat secondary Education Board (GSEB). Questions are based on the text book of Gujarat Board. Hope it will help other students, too. For descriptive Question-Answer you can visit my another blog scienceandtechnology-manojsir.blogspot.com

Thursday, March 6, 2014

Chapter 1 : INTRODUCTION TO NANOTECHNOLOGY

Choose Appropriate Alternative



  1. 10 nm = _____ m
    [A] 10-8 [B] 10-7 [C] 10-9 [D] 10-10
  2. The size of nanoparticles is between _____ nm.
    [A] 100 to 1000 [B] 0.1 to 10 [C] 1 to 100 [D] 0.01 to 1
  3. The diameter of hydrogen atom is...
    [A] 1 [B] 10 [C] 0.1 [D] 0.01
  4. Carbon atoms make ____ type of bond with other carbon atoms.
    [A] covalent [B] ionic [C] metallic [D] hydrogen
  5. Fullerene or bucky ball is made up of ____ carbon atoms.
    [A] 100 [B] 20 [C] 75 [D] 60
  6. The thermal conductivity of a standard SWNT along its length is ____ watt/(m.K)
    [A] 3500 [B] 385 [C] 35000 [D] 35
  7. 1 m = _____ nm.
    [A] 10-9 [B] 10-8 [C] 109 [D] 108
  8. "There is plenty of room at the bottom." This was stated by _____.
    [A] Eric Drexler [B] Richard Feynmann [C] Harold Croto [D] Richard Smalley
  9. Who coined the word 'nanotechnology'?
    [A] Eric Drexler [B] Richard Feynmann [C] Sumio Tijima [D] Richard Smalley
  10. According to the definition by CRN, nanotechnology is...
    [A] mechanical engineering [B] atomic engineering 
[C] Newtonian mechanics    [D] micro-electronics
  11. Nanoscience can be studied with the help of...
    [A] quantum mechanics [B] Newtonian mechanics [C] macro-dynamics [D] geophysics
  12. Greeks and Romans had used nanoparticles in the manufacture of...
    [A] cosmetics for eyes [B] medicines [C] metal articles [D] hair-dye
  13. Egyptians were using ____ to prepare make-up for eyes.
    [A] nanoaluminium [B] nanocopper [C] nanosteel [D] nanolead
  14. The sword of Tipu Sultan was made of...
    [A] nanolead [B] nanoaluminium [C] Damascus steel [D] Pure iron
  15. _____ contains nanoparticles prepared by using biologically processed metal ores.
    [A] Homeopathic medicines [B] Modern antibiotics 
[C] Ayurvedic 'Bhasmas'  [D] Modern cosmetics
  16. Who was the first scientist to describe that substances having nanodimensions possess altogether different and unique properties?
    [A] Richard Feynmann [B] Eric Drexler [C] Archimedes [D] Michael Faraday
  17. Which of the following does not apply to nanotechnology?
    [A] It is a general-purpose technology.  [B] It can be called Green technology.
[C] Newtonian mechanics can describe it. [D] It involves rearrangement of atoms.
  18. The diameter of human hair is ____ nm.
    [A] 50,000 [B] 75,000 [C] 90,000 [D] 1,00,000
  19. The diameter of human hair is ____ m.
    [A] 5 x 10-8 [B] 5 x 10-7 [C] 5 x 10-6 [D] 5 x 10-5
  20. The cut-off limit of human eye is ____ nm.
    [A] 2,000 [B] 5,000 [C] 10,000 [D] 50,000
  21. The size of E.Coli bacteria is ____ nm.
    [A] 2,000 [B] 5,000 [C] 50 [D] 90
  22. The size of RBC is ____ nm.
    [A] 50 [B] 90 [C] 2,000 [D] 5,000
  23. The thickness of a transistor is ____ nm.
    [A] 50 [B] 90 [C] 2,000 [D] 5,000
  24. The size of a virus is ____ nm.
    [A] 2 [B] 20 [C] 50 [D] 2000
  25. The diameter of a bucky ball is ____ nm.
    [A] 1,000 [B] 100 [C] 10 [D] 1
  26. The width of a typical DNA molecule is ____ nm.
    [A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 5 [D] 10
  27. 1 micrometer (micron) = ______ m.
    [A] 10-9 [B] 10-8 [C] 10-7 [D] 10-6
  28. 1 micrometer (micron) = ______ nm.
    [A] 1,000 [B] 100 [C] 10 [D] 0.01
  29. The full form of STM is...
    [A] Scanning Tunneling Microscope   [B] Scientific Technical Microscope 
[C] Systematic Technical Microscope[D] Super Tensile Microscope
  30. What does 'F' stand for in AFM?
    [A] Fine [B] Front [C] Force [D] Flux
  31. Which ratio decides the efficiency of nanosubstances?
    [A] Weight/volume [B] Surface area/volume [C] Volume/weight [D] Pressure/volume
  32. The surface area to volume ratio of a sphere with radius 1 cm is R1 and that of a sphere with radius 5 cm is R2. Then R1 = ____ R2.
    [A] 3 [B] 1/3 [C] 5 [D] 1/5
  33. The surface area to volume ratio of a cube with side 1 unit is R1 and that of a cube with side 10 units is R2. Then R2 = ____ R1.
    [A] 1/10 [B] 10 [C] 1/100 [D] 100
  34. The two important properties of nanosubstances are...
    [A] pressure and friction     [B] sticking and friction 
[C] sticking and temperature [D] temperature and friction
  35. With the help of _____, Robert F. Curl and others discovered fullerene.
    [A] electron microscope     [B] magnetic resonance 
[C] condensation technique [D] mass spectrograph
  36. In the structure of fullerene each carbon atom forms covalent bonds with ____ other carbon atoms.
    [A] one [B] two [C] three [D] four
  37. Who had invented the famous 'Geodesic' dome structure?
    [A] Eric Drexler [B] Buckminster Fuller [C] Richard Smalley [D] Faraday
  38. The largest cluster of carbon atoms in Bucky balls known till today consists of ____ carbon atoms.
    [A] 60 [B] 75 [C] 180 [D] 540
  39. The smallest cluster of carbon atoms in Bucky balls known till today consists of ____ carbon atoms.
    [A] 75 [B] 60 [C] 20 [D] 15
  40. The tensile strength of an MWNT is ____ Pa.
    [A] 63 x 106 [B] 63 x 107 [C] 63 x 108 [D] 63 x 109
  41. The compressive strength of a nanotube _____ its tensile strength.
    [A] is less than [B] is greater than [C] is equal to [D] may be greater than
  42. The hardness of a standard SWNT is ____ Pa.
    [A] 63 x 106 [B] 25 x 106 [C] 25 x 109 [D] 25 x 10-9
  43. The bulk modulus of a standard SWNT is ____ that of diamond.
    [A] less than [B] greater than [C] equal to [D] less than or equal to
  44. How much current can be passed through 1 cm2 cross-section of a metal nanotube?
    [A] 10-9 A [B] 109 A [C] 1000 A [D] 0.001 A
  45. The electrical conductivity of a nanotube is ____ times that of copper.
    [A] 10 [B] 100 [C] 1000 [D] 1/100
  46. An MWNT possesses electrical superconductivity up to temperature of...
    [A] 12 K [B] 12°C [C] 100 K [D] 100°
  47. At room temperature, the thermal conductivity of a copper wire is ____ watt/(m.K).
    [A] 3500 [B] 350 [C] 385 [D] 38.5
  48. In radial direction, the thermal conductivity of a nanotube is ____ watt/(m.K).
    [A] 3500 [B] 385 [C] 350 [D] 0
  49. The thermal stability of a nanotube is seen up to ____ K in vacuum.
    [A] 100 [B] 1000 [C] 2200 [D] 3100
  50. The thermal conductivity of an SWNT along length is ____ watt/(m.K).
    [A] 35 [B] 350 [C] 385 [D] 3500
  51. The size of a quantum dot is ____ nm.
    [A] 5 [B] 10 [C] 50 [D] 100
  52. The wavelength of visible light is ____ nm.
    [A] 40-70 [B]  400-700 [C] 4000-7000 [D] 40000-70000
  53. The capacity of a normal human eye to see the smallest object is ____ μm.
    [A] 10000 [B] 1000 [C] 100 [D] 10
  54. The width of a carbon nanotube is ____ nm.
    [A] 1 [B] 1.3 [C] 2.5 [D] 10
  55. The thermal stability of a nanotube is seen up to ____ K in air.
    [A] 100 [B] 1000 [C] 2000 [D] 3100
  56. Nanoparticles of which substance were found on the surface of the sword of Tipu Sultan?
    [A] Gold [B] Lead [C] Carbon [D] Silicon
  57. Nano particles of which atom are used to control collateral damage due to explosion?
    [A] Copper [B] Aluminium [C] Carbon [D] Lead
  58. Who prepared and explained nanotubes for the first time?
    [A] Sumio Tijima [B] Richard Smalley [C] Eric Drexler [D] Richard Feynmann
  59. Which of the following statement/s is are true?
    1. Volume to surface area ratio is very large for nanomaterials.
    2. The cut-off limit of human eye is 10-5 m.
    3. Hardness of a SWNT is about 63 x 109 Pa.
    4. Carbon nanotubes are cylindrical fullerenes. 

    [A] All four [B] (ii) and (iv) [C] (i), (ii) and (iv) [D] (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  60. Match the objects in Part A with their size in Part B.

    [A] 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b [B] 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
[C] 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c [D] 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
  61. Match the items in Part A with appropriate alternative in Part B. 

    [A] 1-c, 2-d, 3-a [B] 1-c, 2-b, 3-a [C] 1-c, 2-a, 3-b [D] 1-a, 2-b, 3-d
  62. The suffix '-ene' in the name of fullerene shows the presence of _____ in the molecule.
    [A] one triple bond [B] one double bond [C] two single bonds [D] two triple bonds

ANSWERS


(1) A (2) C (3) C (4) A (5) D (6) A (7) C (8) B (9) A (10) B (11) A (12) D (13) D (14) C (15) C (16) D (17) C (18) A (19) D (20) C (21) A (22) D (23) B (24) C (25) D (26) B (27) D (28) A (29) A (30) C (31) B (32) C (33) A (34) B (35) D (36) C (37) B (38) D (39) C (40) D (41) A (42) C (43) B (44) B (45) C (46) A (47) C (48) D (49) D (50) D (51) A (52) B (53) D (54) B (55) B (56) C (57) B (58) A (59) D (60) C (61) C (62) B
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Saturday, March 1, 2014

Chapter 2 : LIGHT : REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

Choose Appropriate Alternative


  1. What is the range of wavelength of visible light?
    [A] 4 x 10-7 to 8 x 10-7 m [B] 4 x 10-9 to 8 x 10-9 m 
[C] 4 x 10-5 to 8 x 10-5 m [D] 4 x 10-6 to 8 x 10-6 m
  2. For the spherical mirror, what is the relation between radius of curvature (R) and focal length (f)?
    [A] R = f/2 [B] R = f [C] R = 2f [D] R = 3f
  3. Which type of reflection is represented by the light reflected from a book?
    [A] Regular [B] Irregular [C] Both types [D] None
  4. Through which point, a ray passing through the centre of curvature and reflected by a concave mirror will pass through?
    [A] Focus [B] Centre of curvature [C] Pole [D] All
  5. At what distance in front of a concave mirror should an object be placed to get its virtual and erect image?
    [A] At the centre of curvature [B] Beyond the centre of curvature
[C] Between focus and pole     [D] At focus
  6. For a plane mirror, the magnification is always...
    [A] > 1 [B] < 1 [C] 1 [D] 0
  7. The focal length of a plane mirror is...
    [A] zero [B] infinite [C] uncertain [D] equal to the object distance
  8. The distance between the object at 2 m from a plane mirror and its image is...
    [A] 4 m [B] 1 m [C] 2 m [D] 3 m
  9. At what distance should an object be placed to obtain its real, inverted and same-sized image by a convex lens?
    [A] At focus               [B] Between focus and centre of curvature
[C] At centre of curvature [D] Between optical centre and focus
  10. Which of the following materials has maximum optical density?
    [A] Glass [B] Water [C] Pearl [D] Diamond
  11. The absolute refractive index of any medium is always...
    [A] 1 [B] > 1 [C] < 1 [D] zero
  12. Which of the lenses with focal length 10 cm, 20 cm, 25 cm and 50 cm has maximum power?
    [A] 50 cm [B] 25 cm [C] 20 cm [D] 10 cm
  13. What is the focal length of a convex lens having power +5.0?
    [A] -10 cm [B] -20 cm [C] +10 cm [D] + 20 cm
  14. If the absolute refractive indices of water, benzene and sapphire are 1.33, 1.50 and 1.77, respectively, then which medium has maximum relative refractive index?
    [A] Sapphire relative to water [B] Sapphire relative to benzene 
[C] Benzene relative to water  [D] Water relative to benzene
  15. Which type of image is formed by a plane mirror?
    [A] Real, inverted [B] Real, erect [C] Virtual, erect [D] Virtual, inverted
  16. If the absolute refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2, respectively, then what will be the ratio of velocity of light in water to that in glass?
    [A] 2 [B] 8/9 [C] 9/8 [D] 1/2
  17. If the absolute refractive indices of water, glass and diamond are 1.33, 1.50 and 2.42, respectively, then which medium is optically densest?
    [A] Water [B] Glass [C] Diamond [D] None
  18. Which of the following always form virtual image?
    [A] Concave mirror and convex lens [B] Convex mirror and concave lens
[C] Convex mirror and convex lens [D] Concave mirror and concave lens
  19. What will be the angle of refraction for a light ray incident normal to the surface?
    [A] 90 [B] 60 [C] 30 [D] 0
  20. A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses of focal length 5 cm and 20 cm. Which of them will be objective lens and eye piece?
    [A] Objective lens - f = 20 cm, eye piece - f = 5 cm
[B] Objective lens - f = 5 cm, eye piece - f = 20 cm 
[C] Objective lens - f = 20 cm, eye piece - f = 20 cm 
[D] Objective lens - f = 5 cm, eye piece - f = 5 cm
  21. The speed of light in vacuum is ____ m/s.
    [A] 3 x 105 [B] 3 x 106 [C] 3 x 107 [D] 3 x 108
  22. Which of the following is not true for light rays?
    [A] They travel in straight line. [B] They do not need a medium for propagation.
[C] They are mechanical waves.   [D] They create sensation in our eyes.
  23. We can see objects clearly due to _____ of light.
    [A] refraction [B] regular reflection [C] irregular reflection [D] diffraction
  24. If a ray of light is incident on a surface makes an angle of measure 40° with the surface, then its angle of reflection is of measure...
    [A] 40° [B] 50° [C] 80° [D] 20°
  25. If the angle of incidence of a ray of light is 40°, the measure of the angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray is...
    [A] 40° [B] 50° [C] 80° [D] 20°
  26. The image formed by a plane mirror is...
    [A] real [B] real and erect [C] real and of same size [D] laterally inverted
  27. If the distance between Paresh and his image formed by a plane mirror is 3 m, then the distance between Paresh and the mirror is...
    [A] 1.5 m [B] 3 m [C] 6 m [D] 1/3 m
  28. The centre of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is called its...
    [A] pole [B] focus [C] aperture [D] centre of curvature
  29. If a ray of light incident on a concave mirror is parallel to the principal axis, then after reflection it will...
    [A] travel parallel to the principal axis [B] pass through the focus
[C] pass through the centre of curvature [D] pass through the pole
  30. If a ray of light incident on a concave mirror passes through C, then after reflection it will...
    [A] pass through F        [B] pass through the pole 
[C] pass through C again [D] become parallel to the principal axis
  31. If an object is placed at infinite distance in front of a concave mirror, its image is formed...
    [A] at infinite distance [B] at F [C] at C [D] between F and C
  32. If an object is placed at a finite distance beyond C in front of a concave mirror, its image is formed...
    [A] at C [B] between F and C [C] at F [D] between F and pole
  33. If an object is placed at a finite distance beyond C in front of a concave mirror, its image is...
    [A] real and enlarged       [B] real and of the same height as the object
[C] virtual and diminished  [D] real and diminished
  34. If an object is placed at C in front of a concave mirror, its image is formed...
    [A] at F [B] between F and C [C] at C [D] beyond C
  35. If an object is placed at C in front of a concave mirror, its image is...
    [A] real and of the same height as the object [B] real and diminished 
[C] real and enlarged                         [D] virtual and enlarged
  36. If an object is placed between C and F in front of a concave mirror, its image is formed...
    [A] beyond C [B] between C and F [C] at C [D] at F
  37. If an object is placed between C and F in front of a concave mirror, its image is...
    [A] real and diminished    [B] real and enlarged 
[C] virtual and diminished [D] virtual and enlarged
  38. If an object is placed at F in front of a concave mirror, its image is formed...
    [A] at F [B] at C [C] between F and C [D] at infinite distance
  39. If an object is placed between F and pole of a concave mirror, its image is formed...
    [A] beyond C [B] at infinity [C] between F and C [D] behind the mirror
  40. If an object is placed between F and pole of a concave mirror, its image is...
    [A] real  and enlarged        [B] virtual and enlarged 
[C] real and diminished [D] virtual and diminished
  41. The image formed by a convex mirror is always...
    [A] real and enlarged     [B] real and diminished
[C] virtual and enlarged [D] virtual and diminished
  42. If an object is placed at a finite distance from a convex mirror, its image is formed...
    [A] beyond C         [B] between F and C 
[C] between F and P [D] anywhere depending on object distance
  43. If an object placed in front of a convex mirror is moved towards the mirror, its image will move...
    [A] away from P towards F [B] away from F towards P
[C] away from F towards C [D] beyond C
  44. In Cartesian sign convention for spherical mirrors, the origin is taken at...
    [A] pole of the mirror      [B] focus of the mirror 
[C] its centre of curvature[D] at the point where object is placed
  45. Using standard symbols, which of the following is mirror formula?
    [A] (1/v) - (1/u) = (1/f) [B] (1/v) + (1/f) = (1/u) 
[C] (u + v)/uv = (2/R)   [D] (u + v)/uv = (R/2)
  46. The magnification by a convex mirror is always...
    [A] 1 [B] less than 1 [C] greater than 1 [D] negative
  47. The magnification by a concave mirror is (-1) when the object is placed...
    [A] at F [B] between C and F [C] at C [D] beyond C
  48. If an object is placed between F and pole of a concave mirror, its magnification is...
    [A] > 1, positive [B] > 1, negative [C] < 1, positive [D] < 1, negative
  49. If the image formed by a concave mirror is real and enlarged, its magnification can be...
    [A] + 0.5 [B] - 0.5 [C] + 5.0 [D] - 5.0
  50. During refraction of light through a rectangular glass slab, the lateral shift does not depend on...
    [A] angle of incidence                             [B] refractive index of the medium 
[C] perpendicular distance between refractive surfaces of the slab [D] thickness of slab
  51. If an object is placed beyond 2F1 of a convex lens, its image is formed...
    [A] beyond 2F2 [B] between F2 and 2F2 [C] at 2F2 [D] between F2 and O
  52. If an object is placed between F and 2F of a convex lens, its image is...
    [A] real, diminished [B] virtual, diminished [C] real, enlarged [D] virtual, enlarged
  53. If the image of an object formed by a convex lens is virtual, then...
    [A] the object is between F and 2F [B] the object is at 2F
[C] the image is diminished        [D] the image is enlarged
  54. The image of an object placed at a finite distance in front of a concave lens is...
    [A] always real [B] always virtual [C] always enlarged [D] always virtual and enlarged
  55. The magnification of a concave lens is always...
    [A] < 1, positive [B] < 1, negative [C] > 1, positive [D] > 1, negative
  56. The SI unit of power of lens is...
    [A] meter [B] dioptre [C] cm [D] hertz
  57. Which of the following cannot be the power of a convex lens?
    [A] 2.0 D [B] 0.5 D [C] 1.0 D [D] -0.75 D
  58. The power of a lens is + 2.5 D, then its focal length is_____ m.
    [A] 0.4 [B] 4.0 [C] 2.5 [D] 0.25
  59. The power of a concave lens with focal length 25 cm is...
    [A] -4.0 D [B] +4.0 D [C] -0.04 D [D] +0.04 D
  60. A simple microscope uses...
    [A] one concave lens [B] two concave lenses [C] one convex lens [D] two convex lenses
  61. A compound microscope consists of...
    [A] a convex lens and a concave lens [B] two concave lenses
[C] two convex lenses                [D] only one convex lens
  62. The image formed by a compound microscope is...
    [A] real and enlarged    [B] real and diminished
[C] virtual and enlarged [D] virtual and diminished
  63. The image formed by an astronomical telescope is...
    [A] real and enlarged    [B] real and diminished
[C] virtual and enlarged [D] virtual and diminished
  64. Which of the following can focus the rays of light?
    [A] Convex mirror [B] Concave lens [C] Convex lens [D] Plane mirror
  65. The rays of a parallel beam of light do not remain parallel after reflection from...
    [A] plane mirror [B] convex mirror [C] concave mirror [D] irregular reflecting surface
  66. If θi and θr denote angle of incidence and angle of reflection, respectively, then...
    [A] θi > θr [B] θi < θr [C] θi = θr [D] θr = 90°
  67. If θi and θr denote angle of incidence and angle of refraction, respectively, then...
    [A] θi > θr [B] θi < θr [C] θi = θr [D] θi ≠ θr
  68. The distance between the centre of curvature and the pole of a mirror is...
    [A] focal length [B] radius of curvature [C] object distance [D] image distance
  69. The distance between the principal focus and the centre of curvature of a mirror is equal to...
    [A] radius of curvature [B] focal length [C] aperture [D] distance between object and image
  70. Which of the following is not a part of a spherical mirror?
    [A] Pole [B] Centre of curvature [C] Curved surface [D] Aperture
  71. The distance between the principal focus and the pole of a mirror is half of the...
    [A] radius of curvature [B] focal length [C] aperture [D] distance between object and image
  72. A virtual and enlarged image is formed by a concave mirror when distance of the object is...
    [A] equal to focal length  [B] greater than focal length
[C] less than focal length [D] equal to radius of curvature
  73. Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied to obtain a magnified image of an object by a concave mirror?
    [A] v > u [B] v < u [C] v = u [D] v = f
  74. Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied to obtain a virtual image of an object by a concave mirror?
    [A] u > f [B] u < f [C] u = f [D] u = 2f
  75. According to Cartesian sign convention, ______ is always considered negative.
    [A] focal length [B] radius of curvature [C] object distance [D] image distance
  76. In which of the following pairs of mediums, light has almost same speed?
    [A] Air, water [B] Water, glass [C] Air, vacuum [D] Glass, diamond
  77. Which of the following may have magnification equal to -1?
    [A] Concave mirror, Convex lens  [B] Convex mirror, convex lens 
[C] Concave mirror, concave lens [D] Convex mirror, concave lens
  78. Which of the following may form a real, inverted and magnified image?
    [A] Concave mirror, Convex lens  [B] Convex mirror, convex lens 
[C] Concave mirror, concave lens [D] Convex mirror, concave lens
  79. When an object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a concave mirror, its image is formed at a distance of 24 cm. What will be the magnification?
    [A] +0.5 [B] -0.5 [C] +2.0 [D] -2.0
  80. Which of the following may have magnification equal to +0.5?
    [A] Convex mirror [B] Concave mirror [C] Convex lens [D] Plane mirror
  81. Which of the following may have magnification equal to -0.5?
    [A] Convex mirror [B] Concave lens [C] Convex lens [D] Plane mirror
  82. Which of the following rectangular glass slabs made from same material produces the largest lateral shift when a ray of light is incident at the same angle?
    [A] 15 cm x 9 cm [B] 15 cm x 10 cm [C] 15 cm x 11 cm [D] 15 cm x 12 cm
  83. If the focal length of a lens is doubled, the power of lens...
    [A] is halved [B] is doubled [C] remains same [D] becomes four times
  84. What will be the distance between the principal focus and the centre of curvature of a convex lens having radius of curvature equal to 50 cm?
    [A]  20 cm [B] 25 cm [C] 50 cm [D] 100 cm
  85. What will be the distance between the principal focus and the centre of curvature of a convex lens having focal length equal to 50 cm?
    [A]  20 cm [B] 25 cm [C] 50 cm [D] 100 cm
  86. _____ converge parallel light rays incident upon them.
    [A] Concave mirror, Convex lens  [B] Convex mirror, convex lens 
[C] Concave mirror, concave lens [D] Convex mirror, concave lens
  87. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) not true?
    1. The speed of light in vacuum is 3 x 105 km/s.
    2. The real image is always inverted.
    3. Magnification of plane mirror is +1 or -1
    4. Image formed by a concave lens is always diminished and real.

    [A] (ii) [B] (iii) and (iv) [C] (ii) and (iv) [D] (i), (iii) and (iv)
  88. Absolute refractive index of a medium is always greater than 1 because...
    [A] Velocity of light in vacuum is greater than that in the medium.
[B] Velocity of light in vacuum is smaller than that in the medium.
[C] All other mediums are optically rarer than vacuum.
[D] Velocity of light in vacuum is always constant.
  89. If the dioptre of a lens is doubled, its power will...
    [A] become half [B] double [C] become four times [D] not change
  90. Match items in Part A with appropriate statement in Part B.

    [A] 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a [B] 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
[C] 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a [D] 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
  91. Match the position of object in Part A with appropriate position of image in Part B.

    [A] 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c [B] 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
[C] 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d [D] 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
  92. Match appropriate pairs from Part A (magnification) and Part B (type of mirror/lens)

    [A] 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d [B] 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
[C] 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a [D] 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
  93. A parallel beam of light does not remain parallel after reflection from a ...
    [A] plane mirror [B] concave mirror [C] convex mirror [D] irregular reflecting surface
  94. _____ is the midpoint between the pole and the centre of curvature along the principal axis...
    [A] Principal focus [B] Focal length [C] u [D] v
  95. A convex lens forms a real, inverted and same sized image as the object placed at a distance of 40 cm from it. The power of the lens is _____D.
    [A] +20 [B] -20 [C] +5 [D] -5

  96. [A][B][C][D]


ANSWERS


(1) A (2) C (3) B (4) B (5) C (6) C (7) B (8) A (9) C (10) D (11) B (12) D (13) D (14) A (15) C (16) B (17) C (18) B (19) D (20) B (21) D (22) C (23) C (24) B (25) C (26) D (27) A (28) A (29) B (30) C (31) B (32) B (33) D (34) C (35) A (36) A (37) B (38) D (39) D (40) B (41) D (42) C (43) B (44) A (45) C (46) B (47) C (48) A (49) D (50) D (51) B (52) C (53) D (54) B (55) A (56) B (57) D (58) A (59) A (60) C (61) C (62) C (63) D (64) C (65) D (66) C (67) D (68) B (69) B (70) B (71) A (72) C (73) A (74) B (75) C (76) C (77) A (78) A (79) D (80) A (81) C (82) D (83) A (84) B (85) C (86) A (87) B (88) A (89) B (90) B (91) B (92) B (93) D (94) A (95) C
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Friday, February 21, 2014

Chapter 3 : DISPERSION OF LIGHT AND NATURAL OPTICAL PHENOMENA

CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE



  1. By which optical phenomenon does the splitting of white light into seven constituent colours occur?
    [A] Refraction [B] Reflection [C] Dispersion [D] Interference
  2. Which colour of light deviates maximum in the dispersion of white light by prism?
    [A] Violet [B] Blue [C] Green [D] Red
  3. Which of the following are the primary colours of light?
    [A] Red, Blue, Yellow [B] Red, Green, Violet [C] Yellow, Green, Blue [D] Red, Green, Blue
  4. Which of the following are primary pigments?
    [A] Yellow, Green, Magenta [B] Magenta, Yellow, Cyan 
[C] Blue, Green, Violet   [D] Red, Green, Yellow
  5. In human eye, the image of an object is formed at...
    [A] iris [B] pupil [C] retina [D] cornea
  6. Which is the complimentary colour of blue? 
    [A] Red [B] Yellow [C] Green [D] Magenta
  7. Which colour is obtained by mixing blue and red colours of light?
    [A] Green [B] Magenta [C] Cyan [D] Yellow
  8. The focal length of the eye lens changes due to the action of...
    [A] pupil [B] retina [C] ciliary muscles [D] cornea
  9. Which colours are reflected when white light is incident on blue pigment?
    [A] Yellow, Orange, Green [B] Violet, Green, Blue 
[C] Violet, Yellow, Green [D] Yellow, Green, Blue
  10. _____ lens is used to correct the defect of vision termed as presbyopia.
    [A] Convex [B] Concave [C] Bifocal [D] Contact
  11. Which phenomenon does not play role in the formation of rainbow?
    [A] Reflection [B] Refraction [C] Dispersion [D] Absorption
  12. For which of the following cases will the total internal reflection of light be possible?
    [A] Angle of incidence is less than the critical angle.
[B] Angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle.
[C] Angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.
[D] Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction.
  13. Where is the image in eye formed for a person sufferring from the defect of near-sightedness?
    [A] On retina [B] Behind retina [C] Ahead of retina [D] On pupil
  14. Which phenomenon is responsible for the twinkling of stars?
    [A] Atmospheric reflection [B] Atmospheric refraction 
[C] Reflection             [D] Total internal reflection
  15. Due to which phenomenon of light does Tyndall effect occur?
    [A] Reflection [B] Refraction [C] Scattering [D] Dispersion
  16. What is the time difference between actual sunset and apparent sunset?
    [A] 2 sec [B] 20 sec [C] 2 min [D] 20 min
  17. Which colour of light scatters maximum due to atmosphere?
    [A] Blue [B] Yellow [C] Green [D] Red
  18. Which colour of light has the minimum velocity in the glass prism?
    [A] Red [B] Green [C] Blue [D] Violet
  19. When white light is incident on a green leaf...
    [A] only green colour is absorbed [B] only green colour is reflected
[C] all other colours are reflected [D] the leaf appears black
  20. When light of red colour is incident on a green leaf, the leaf appears...
    [A] red [B] green [C] white [D] black
  21. When light of red colour is incident on a green leaf...
    [A] green colour is reflected                 [B] red colour is reflected 
[C] both red and green colours are reflected [D] red colour is absorbed
  22. Red + Blue = _____
    [A] Magenta [B] Cyan [C] Yellow [D] Green
  23. Blue + Green = _____
    [A] Magenta [B] Cyan [C] Yellow [D] Violet
  24. Red + Cyan = _____
    [A] Magenta [B] Yellow [C] Green [D] White
  25. Red + Blue + Green = ______
    [A] White [B] Violet [C] Indigo [D] Orange
  26. The complimentary colour of yellow is...
    [A] White [B] Green [C] Blue [D] Red
  27. Which of the following is a pair of complimentary colours?
    [A] Red and Blue [B] Cyan and Magenta [C] Magenta and Green [D] White and yellow
  28. Primary pigments are...
    [A] Red, Blue, Green      [B] Yellow, Blue, Violet
[C] Cyan, Magenta, Yellow [D] Cyan, Green, Orange
  29. Pigments are mixed by... mixing.
    [A] additive [B] subtractive [C] multiplicative [D] complimentary
  30. The muscular diaphragm behind the cornea of the eye is called...
    [A] pupil [B] iris [C] ciliary muscle [D] retina
  31. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by...
    [A] pupil [B] iris [C] eye lens [D] cornea
  32. Which of the following statements is true?
    [A] Pupil controls the amount of light entering the eye.
[B] Pupil helps in changing the focal length of the eye lens.
[C] Cornea controls the size of the pupil.
[D] Ciliary muscles change the size of the retina.
  33. For a person with normal vision, the near point of the eye is a point at a distance of ____ from the eye.
    [A] 25 cm [B] 50 cm [C] 1 m [D] infinity
  34. The near point of an eye is 25 cm. This means that a person can clearly see the object at a distance...
    [A] upto 25 cm [B] 25 cm [C] beyond 25 cm [D] 25 cm and beyond
  35. The defect of near-sightedness is corrected by using _____ of suitable power.
    [A] concave lens [B] convex lens [C] combination of concave and convex lenses [D] biconvex lens
  36. The defect of far-sightedness (hypermetropia) is corrected by using _____ of suitable power.
    [A] concave lens [B] convex lens [C] combination of concave and convex lenses [D] biconcave lens
  37. Which of the following defects is the result of ageing of a person?
    [A] Myopia [B] Hypermetropia [C] Presbyopia [D] Colour blindness
  38. The milky or cloudy layer formed on the eye lens of a person is called...
    [A] iris [B] cataract [C] glucoma [D] presbyopia
  39. The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules in all direction is called _____ of light.
    [A] dispersion [B] interference [C] diffraction [D] scattering
  40. Very minute particles present in atmosphere scatter the light of...
    [A] smaller wavelength [B] medium wavelength [C] larger wavelength [D] all wavelengths
  41. Bigger size particles present in atmosphere scatter the light of...
    [A] smaller wavelength [B] medium wavelength [C] larger wavelength [D] only blue colour
  42. Sometimes the smoke emitted by the combustion of oil appears blue due to...
    [A] refraction [B] total internal reflection [C] Tyndall effect [D] dispersion
  43. The wavelength of red coloured light is about ____ times that of the blue coloured light.
    [A] 1.25 [B] 1.5 [C] 1.8 [D] 2.5
  44. Sun appears _____ when it is near horizon.
    [A] red [B] blue [C] white [D] pale blue
  45. When a ray of light travels from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium...
    [A] it moves towards the normal [B] it moves away from the normal 
[C] it is not refracted        [D] it is reflected back in the denser medium
  46. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
    [A] Sparkling of diamond [B] Mirage [C] Looming [D] Twinkling of stars
  47. When total internal reflection occurs...
    [A] the angle of incidence is greater than 90°.
[B] the angle of incidence is greater than the angle of refraction.
[C] the angle of refraction is greater than 90°.
[D] the angle of incidence is equal to 90°.
  48. Arranging in the ascending order of wavelength, which one is true?
    [A] Blue, Green, Red    [B] Orange, Green, Red 
[C] Blue, Yellow, Green [D] Orange, Yellow, Green
  49. The velocity of waves of all colours is same in...
    [A] water [B] air [C] vacuum [D] glass
  50. Total internal reflection will occur if the angle of refraction is...
    [A] 45° [B] 60° [C] 90° [D] 99°
  51. Which colour of light deviates minimum in the dispersion of white light by prism?
    [A] Violet [B] Blue [C] Green [D] Red
  52. Which of the following colours of white light deviates minimum in the dispersion of white light by prism?
    [A] Green [B] Indigo [C] Yellow [D] Orange
  53. Which colours of light are reflected from blue pigment when white light is incident on it?
    [A] Yellow, Orange, Green [B] Violet, Green, Blue
[C] Violet, Yellow, Green [D] Violet, Yellow, Blue
  54. Which colours of light are reflected from yellow pigment when white light is incident on it?
    [A] Yellow, Orange, Green [B] Violet, Green, Blue
[C] Violet, Yellow, Green [D] Violet, Yellow, Blue
  55. Which colour of light is reflected from the mixture of yellow and blue pigments when white light is incident on it?
    [A] Yellow [B] Green [C] Blue [D] Violet
  56. The accommodation power of the eye is accomplished by the action of...
    [A] cornea [B] pupil [C] retina [D] ciliary muscles
  57. Which optical phenomenon is responsible for twinkling of stars?
    [A] Atmospheric refraction    [B] Atmospheric reflection 
[C] Total internal reflection [D] Dispersion
  58. The time duration between apparent sunrise and apparent sunset is ____ than that between actual sunrise and actual sunset.
    [A] 2 minutes less [B] 2 minutes more [C] 4 minutes less [D] 4 minutes more
  59. The sparkling of diamond and the signal communication through optical fibres is due to...
    [A] refraction [B] scattering [C] total internal reflection [D] dispersion
  60. Red + Cyan = _____.
    [A] Green + Blue [B] Blue + Red [C] Green + Magenta [D] Green + Yellow
  61. In the following, the Part A shows different optical phenomena and Part B shows the reasons for those phenomena. Match appropriate pairs.

    [A] 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d [B] 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
[C] 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a [D] 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
  62. Match the defects of vision in Part A with appropriate remedy in Part B.

    [A] 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c [B] 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
[C] 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b [D] 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
  63. Match the colour in Part A with its complimentary colour in Part B.

    [A] 1-a, 2-c, 3-d [B] 1-c, 2-a, 3-d [C] 1-b, 2-c, 3-a [D] 1-d, 2-b, 3-a
  64. Had there been no atmosphere, the sky would have appeared...
    [A] red [B] blue [C] white [D] dark

  65. [A][B][C][D]

ANSWERS


(1) C (2) A (3) D (4) B (5) C (6) B (7) B (8) C (9) B (10) C (11) D (12) C (13) C (14) B (15) C (16) C (17) A (18) D (19) B (20) D (21) D (22) A (23) B (24) D (25) A (26) C (27) C (28) C (29) B (30) B (31) A (32) A (33) A (34) D (35) A (36) B (37) C (38) B (39) D (40) A (41) C (42) C (43) C (44) A (45) B (46) D (47) C (48) A (49) C (50) D (51) D (52) D (53) B (54) A (55) B (56) D (57) A (58) D (59) C (60) C (61) B (62) D (63) A (64) D
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Tuesday, January 7, 2014

Chapter 4 : ELECTRICITY

Choose Appropriate Alternative



  1. The SI unit of electric charge is...
    [A] ampere [B] volt [C] watt [D] coulomb
  2. How many electrons will be there in 1.6 C charge?
    [A] 1017 [B] 1018 [C] 1019 [D] 1020
  3. 1 μA = ______ mA.
    [A] 10-16[B] 10-3 [C] 103 [D] 106
  4. Which of the following materials has more number of free electrons?
    [A] Copper [B] Glass [C] Rubber [D] Iron
  5. According to Ohm's law...
    [A] The resistance increases with the increase in current. 
[B] The resistance increases with the increase in voltage.
[C] The current increases with the increase in voltage. 
[D] The resistance and current both increase with the increase in voltage.
  6. The formula for electric current is...
    [A] I = Q.t [B] I = Q/t [C] I = t/Q [D] I = W.t
  7. 2 A current is passed through a conducting wire for 1 min. How much charge will flow through the wire?
    [A] 2 C [B] 30 C [C] 60 C [D] 120 C
  8. In an electrical appliance, current of 4.8 A is passed. The number of electrons passing through it in 1 sec will be...
    [A] 0.33 x 1019 [B] 3.3 x 1019 [C] 3 x 1019 [D] 4.8 x 1019
  9. Which of the following formulas represents voltage?
    [A] Work/(current.time)      [B] Work.time/current 
[C] (Work).(electric charge) [D] (Work).(electric charge).(time)
  10. The unit of electrical potential difference is...
    [A] J [B] J/C [C] J.C [D] C/J
  11. If the work done to move 3 C electric charge from one point to another point is 15 J, what will be the potential difference between these points?
    [A] 3 V [B] 15 V [C] 5 V [D] 45 V
  12. The resistance of a conducting wire is 10 Ω. How much electric current will flow by connecting it with a battery of 1.5 V?
    [A] 0.15 mA [B] 1.5 mA [C] 15 mA [D] 150 mA
  13. On which factors does the resistivity of a conducting wire depend?
    [A] Length of wire [B] Cross-sectional area of wire 
[C] Volume of wire [D] Material of wire
  14. If 5 equal pieces are made from a wire having resistance 5 Ω and then each piece is connected in parallel to others, then their equivalent resistance will be...
    [A] 1/5 Ω [B] 1 Ω [C] 5 Ω [D] 25Ω
  15. The unit of resistivity is...
    [A] Ω [B] Ω.m [C] Ω/m [D] m/Ω
  16. What will be the equivalent resistance between points A and B of the following circuit?

    [A] 1 Ω [B] 2 Ω [C] 5 Ω [D] 10 Ω
  17. What will be the equivalent resistance between points A and B of the following circuit?

    [A] 4 Ω [B] 8 Ω [C] 2 Ω [D] ⒠
  18. What will be the equivalent resistance between points A and B of the following circuit?

    [A] 2.5 Ω [B] 5 Ω [C] 12.5 Ω [D] 20 Ω
  19. Which physical quantity has the unit kWh?
    [A] Work [B] Electric power [C] Electric current [D] Electric potential
  20. 1 kWh = _____ joule.
    [A] 3.6 x 106 [B] 3.6 x 103 [C] 3.6 x 10-6 [D] 3.6 x 10-3
  21. An electric heater consumes 1.1 kW power when 220V voltage is applied to it. How much current will flow through it?
    [A] 1.1 A [B] 2.2 A [C] 4 A [D] 5 A
  22. What makes electric current flow through a solution?
    [A] Only free electrons [B] Only positive ions 
[C] Only negative ions [D] Positive and negative ions
  23. The distilled water acts as _____ for the electricity.
    [A] conductor [B] insulator [C] semiconductor [D] none
  24. The magnitude of electric force between the charges can be calculated using the law devised by...
    [A] Coulomb [B] Ohm [C] Maxwell [D] Ampere
  25. Free electrons are...
    [A] in the first orbit [B] in any orbit 
[C] valence electrons [D] on the surface of the conductor
  26. _____ discovered electrons.
    [A] Ampere [B] Faraday [C] Thomson [D] Coulomb
  27. 1 mA = _____ A.
    [A] 10 [B] 10-1[C] 10-2[D] 10-3
  28. In Volta's cell...
    [A] electrical energy is converted to thermal energy.
[B] thermal energy is converted to electrical energy.
[C] chemical energy is converted to electrical energy.
[D] electrical energy is converted to chemical energy.
  29. In Volta's cell _____ plate acts as cathode.
    [A] copper [B] graphite [C] zinc [D] aluminium
  30. The SI unit of resistance is...
    [A] coulomb/sec [B] volt/ampere [C] ampere/volt [D] volt/joule
  31. Which of the following has maximum resistivity?
    [A] Tungsten [B] Nichrome [C] Aluminium [D] Diamond
  32. Which of the following is a semiconductor?
    [A] Germanium [B] Diamond [C] Graphite [D] Nichrome
  33. The chemical equivalent of an atom is the ratio of...
    [A] atomic mass to atomic radius [B] atomic radius to atomic mass 
[C] atomic mass to valency      [D] valency to atomic mass
  34. Work done on an electric charge is stored in it as...
    [A] potential energy [B] kinetic energy [C] thermal energy [D] nuclear energy
  35. _____ is not essential to obtain electric current.
    [A] Free electrons [B] Potential difference [C] Electric circuit [D] Potential
  36. Who invented the simple electrochemical cell?
    [A] Faraday [B] Edison [C] Volta [D] Coulomb
  37. When resistors are connected in series...
    [A] voltage drop is uniform               [B] current is uniform 
[C] voltage drop and current are uniform [D] neither of the two is uniform
  38. When resistors are connected in parallel...
    [A] voltage drop is uniform               [B] current is uniform 
[C] voltage drop and current are uniform [D] neither of the two is uniform
  39. The equivalent resistance of three resistors of 6Ω, 12Ω and 12Ω connected in parallel is...
    [A] 6Ω [B] 12Ω [C] 3Ω [D] 1/3Ω
  40. Which of the following is not correct for electric work(W)?
    [A] W = V.Q [B] W = V.I.t [C] W = I2Rt [D] W = I2RQ
  41. _____ is not a unit of energy.
    [A] joule [B] watt [C] watt.second [D] kWh
  42. 1 joule = ______.
    [A] 1 watt.second [B] 1 watt/sec [C] 1 coulomb/sec [D] 1 unit
  43. Which of the following is not correct?
    [A] P = W/t [B] P = I2R [C] P = W.I [D] P = V.I
  44. Silicon is a/an...
    [A] conductor [B] insulator [C] semiconductor [D] superconductor
  45. The equivalent resistance of the resistances connected in parallel is...
    [A] smaller than the smallest resistance [B] larger than the largest resistance
[C] an average of all resistances       [D] algebraic sum of all resistances
  46. 1 unit of domestic electrical energy is...
    [A] 1 joule [B] 1 watt.sec [C] 3.6 x 106 joule [D] 3.6 x 106kWh
  47. Three resistances of equal magnitude are connected in parallel. The circuit current is 3 A. Then the current passing through each resistor is...
    [A] 3 A [B] 1 A [C] 9 A [D] 1/3 A
  48. How much total electric charge is present on 100 protons?
    [A] 6 x 10-19C [B] 6 x 10-17C [C] 1.6 x 10-19C [D] 1.6 x 10-17C
  49. Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
    [A] Rubber [B] Glass [C] Plastic [D] Graphite
  50. Which of the following is a bad conductor (insulator) of electricity?
    [A] Copper [B] Graphite [C] Glass [D] Silver
  51. Which of the following statements is true for electric current?
    [A] The direction of conventional current and that of electrons is opposite.
[B] The direction of conventional current and that of electrons is same. 
[C] The direction of conventional current is random.
[D] Electron flow is random.
  52. 1 μA = ______ mA
    [A] 10-1 [B] 10-2 [C] 10-3 [D] 103
  53. 1 mA = _____ μA
    [A] 10-1 [B] 10-3[C] 103 [D] 106
  54. How many electrons will carry 4.8 x 10-16 C charge?
    [A] 300 [B] 3000 [C] 480 [D] 4800
  55. The unit coulomb/sec is expressed as...
    [A] Ampere [B] Volt [C] Ohm [D] Watt
  56. The SI unit of electric current is...
    [A] Ohm [B] Coulomb [C] Ampere [D] Volt
  57. If the electric charge passing through a conductor in 5 minutes is 480 C, the current flowing through it is...
    [A] 96 [B] 2400 [C] 1.6 [D] 2.4
  58. Which device is used to measure electrical potential difference?
    [A] Ammeter [B] Voltmeter [C] Wattmeter [D] Galvanometer
  59. The SI unit of electrical potential difference is...
    [A] Ampere [B] Ohm [C] Weber [D] Volt
  60. 1.5 C charge is moved from a point at 5 V potential to a point at 8 V potential. What is the amount of work done in joule?
    [A] 1.5 [B] 2.0 [C] 3.0 [D] 4.5
  61. If the work done to move 4 C charge from one point to another point is 10 joule, what is the potential difference between those points?
    [A] 2.5 V [B] 40 V [C] 14 V [D] 160 V
  62. Which of the following is true?
    [A] Joule = (volt/coulomb)  [B] Volt = (joule/coulomb)
[C] Coulomb = (volt/joule) [D] Coulomb = (joule x volt)
  63. According to Ohm's law...
    [A] Current increases linearly with increase in voltage.
[B] The current ---> voltage graph is a straight line.
[C] The ratio of voltage and current is constant.
[D] All three in A, B and C are correct.
  64. The SI unit of resistance is...
    [A] volt [B] volt.ampere [C] ampere/volt [D] volt/ampere
  65. Which of the following materials has least resistance?
    [A] Aluminium [B] Glass [C] Carbon [D] Silicon
  66. 1.5 A current flows through a resistor when it is connected to a circuit with 3 V potential difference. What is the value of resistance?
    [A] 4.5Ω [B] 2Ω [C] 0.5Ω [D] 1.5Ω
  67. When a 15V battery is connected across a resistor of 6Ω, the amount of charge passing through it per second is...
    [A] 90 C [B] 2/3 C [C] 2.5 C [D] 9 C
  68. If the resistance of a circuit is doubled and the applied potential difference is halved, the current passing through the circuit will ...
    [A] become 1/4 of original  [B] become 1/2 of original
[C] become 4 times original [D] not change
  69. If the resistance of a circuit is halved and the applied potential difference is doubled, the current passing through the circuit will ...
    [A] become 1/4 of original  [B] become 1/2 of original
[C] become 4 times original [D] not change
  70. A 200 m long wire has cross sectional area of 10-6 sq. m and its material has resistivity of 10-7Ω.m. What will be its resistance?
    [A] 0.2Ω [B] 2Ω [C] 20Ω [D] 200Ω
  71. When two resistors with resistances R1 and R2 are connected in series and parallel, their equivalent resistances are R3 and R4, respectively. Then...
    [A] R1R2 = R3R4 [B] R1R3 = R2R4 [C] R1R4 = R3R2 [D] R1R2R3R4 = 1
  72. When two resistors with resistance of 10Ω and 20Ω are connected in series with a 3 V battery, the current passing through the circuit will be...
    [A] 0.1 A [B] 1 A [C] 2 A [D] 3 A
  73. When two resistors of 6Ω and 6Ω are connected in parallel with a 12V battery, the current flowing through the circuit is...
    [A] 1.0 A [B] 2.0 A [C] 4.0 A [D] 0.25 A
  74. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of...
    [A] electrical potential [B] electric power [C] electric energy [D] electric current
  75. 7.2 x 109 joule = _____ units of electrical energy.
    [A] 0.2 [B] 20 [C] 2000 [D] 5000
  76. An electric lamp draws a current of 0.5 A when connected to a 9V battery. What is the power rating of the bulb?
    [A] 4.5 W [B] 18 W [C] 41.5 W [D] 2.25 W
  77. If an electric iron has power rating of 2 kW, the cost of energy consumed for 24 hours at the rate of Rs. 6 per unit is equal to...
    [A] Rs. 48 [B] Rs. 144 [C] Rs. 72 [D] Rs. 288
  78. How many joules of energy is transferred by an electric bulb of 60 W power rating in one minute?
    [A] 60 [B] 1000 [C] 3600 [D] 6000
  79. A bulb has rating 12 V, 1 A. How much energy is consumed by it in 10 minutes?
    [A] 120 J [B] 1200 J [C] 720 J [D] 7200 J
  80. Match the physical quantities in Part A with their units in Part B. 

    [A] 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b [B] 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
[C] 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a [D] 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
  81. Match the physical quantity in Part A with formula in Part B. 

    [A] 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b [B] 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
[C] 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a [D] 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
  82. Which of the following circuit symbol represents electric cell?

  83. Which of the following circuit symbol represents a resistor?

  84. What will be the equivalent resistance in the following circuit?

    [A] 2 Ω [B] 3 Ω [C] 4 Ω [D] 6 Ω
  85. What will be the equivalent resistance between points A and b in the following circuit? 

    [A] 1 Ω [B] 2 Ω [C] 3 Ω [D] 4 Ω
  86. What will be the equivalent resistance between points A and b in the following circuit?

    [A] 1 Ω [B] 2 Ω [C] 3 Ω [D] 4 Ω
  87. Which of the following circuits has the lowest equivalent resistance?

    [A] Figure 1 [B] Figure 2 [C] Figure 3 [D] Figure 4
  88. Two resistors each of value R are connected in series in a circuit with V volt battery. If two more resistances each of magnitude R are connected in series in this circuit, the current in the circuit will...
    [A] become double [B] become half [C] not change [D] become one fourth
  89. In an electric circuit, three bulbs of 40W, 60W and 100W are connected in series. The voltage drop is maximum across ____ bulb.
    [A] 40W [B] 60W [C] 100W [D] None
  90. According to Ohm's law, voltage drop is inversely proportional to...
    [A] I [B] 1/I [C] R [D] 1/R
  91. A 2 kW heater works on domestic voltage main supply. What should be the current rating of the fuse?
    [A] 2 A [B] 5 A [C] 10 A [D] 6 A
  92. 6 C charge is passing through an electric bulb in one minute. How much current will pass through it?
    [A] 10 A [B] 1 A [C] 0.1 A [D] 0.01 A
  93. On what does the heat produced in a resistance depend?
    [A] Electric current passed          [B] Resistance 
[C] Time for which current is passed [D] All of these
  94. The electric force between two charges, q1 and q2, is ______ proportional to the product of the magnitudes of the charges and _____ proportional to the square of the distance between them.
    [A] directly, inversely [B] directly, directly 
[C] inversely, directly [D] inversely, inversely
  95. The resistance of a conductor is R. The resistance of another conductor of identical material and equal length with twice the diameter is...
    [A] R/4 [B] R/2 [C] 2R [D] 4R
  96. Which of the following combinations of length(l) and cross-sectional area(A) will give a certain volume of copper the least resistance?
    [A] l and A [B] 2l and A/2 [C] l/2 and 2A [D] none as the volume is same
  97. A resistor R1 dissipates power P when connected to a certain generator. If a resistor R2 is inserted in series with R1, the power dissipated by R1...
    [A] decreases [B] increases [C] remains the same [D] any of the above depending on R1 and R2
  98. A resistor R1 dissipates power P when connected to a certain generator. If a resistor R2 is inserted in parallel with R1, the power dissipated by R1...
    [A] decreases [B] increases [C] remains the same [D] any of the above depending on R1 and R2
  99. A 20-V potential difference is applied across a series combination of a 10 Ω and a 30 Ω resistors. The current in the 10 Ω resistor is...
    [A] 0.5 A [B] 0.67 A [C] 1 A [D] 2 A
  100. Two identical resistors in parallel have an equivalent resistance of 2 Ω. If the resistors were in series, their equivalent resistance would be...
    [A] 2 Ω [B] 4 Ω [C] 8 Ω [D] 16 Ω
  101. A 12-V potential difference is applied across a series combination of four 6Ω resistors. The current in each resistor is...
    [A] 0.5A [B] 2A [C] 8A [D] 18A
  102. A 12-V potential difference is applied across a parallel combination of four 6Ω resistors. The current in each resistor is...
    [A] 0.5A [B] 2A [C] 8A [D] 18A
  103. If a charge of Q coulomb flows in a part of a circuit across which there is a potential difference of V volt then the energy change W in joule is given by...
    [A] Q.V [B] Q/V [C] V/Q [D] Q2/V

  104. [A][B][C][D]


ANSWERS


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