To the visitors of blog

I have created this blog for students of class 10 of Gujarat secondary Education Board (GSEB). Questions are based on the text book of Gujarat Board. Hope it will help other students, too. For descriptive Question-Answer you can visit my another blog scienceandtechnology-manojsir.blogspot.com

Friday, December 27, 2013

Chapter 5 : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

Choose Appropriate Alternative



  1. The direction of magnetic field lines in the region outside the bar magnet is...
    [A] from the N pole towards the S pole of the magnet. 
    [B] from the S pole towards the N pole of the magnet.
    [C] in the direction coming out from both the poles of the magnet.
    [D] in the direction entering both the poles of the magnet.
  2. Which of the following statements is false?
    [A] The direction of magnetic field lines is from N to S.
    [B] In the region where magnetic field lines are at a close distance from one another, 
    there will be a strong magnetic field. 
    [C] The magnetic field lines form closed loops. 
    [D] The magnetic field lines can cross one another.
  3. By which instrument can the presence of magnetic field be determined?
    [A] Voltmeter [B] Ammeter [C] Galvanometer [D] Magnetic needle
  4. Who was the first to observe the magnetic effect of electric current?
    [A] Faraday [B] Oersted [C] Volta [D] Ampere
  5. With the help of which law can the direction of a magnetic field decided?
    [A] Faraday's law          [B] Fleming's right hand rule 
    [C] Right hand thumb rule  [D] Fleming's left hand rule
  6. According to the Right hand thumb rule, direction of what is indicated by the thumb?
    [A] Electric current [B] Magnetic field [C] Magnetic force [D] Motion of conductor
  7. The magnetic field produced in a straight conducting wire on passing current through it is...
    [A] in the direction of current [B] in the direction opposite to the current 
    [C] circular around the wire    [D] in the direction parallel to the wire
  8. What is the type of field line of a magnetic field passing through the centre of current carrying circular ring?
    [A] Circular [B] Straight line [C] Ellipse [D] Magnetic field is zero at centre.
  9. Which of the following has magnetic field like that of a bar magnet?
    [A] Current carrying wire     [B] Current carrying ring 
    [C] Current carrying solenoid [D] Current carrying rectangular loop
  10. Who gave the principle of electromagnetic induction?
    [A] Faraday [B] Oersted [C] Volta [D] Ampere
  11. Which is the direction of magnetic force acting on a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field?
    [A] along magnetic field            [B] along the electric current 
    [C] perpendicular to magnetic field [D] opposite to magnetic field
  12. How is a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field so that magnetic field does not act on it?
    [A] Parallel to the magnetic field             [B] Perpendicular to the magnetic field 
    [C] Making angle of 40° with magnetic field [D] Can be arranged any way.
  13. In which of the following cases, the induced current in the loop will not be obtained?
    [A] The loop is moved in the direction of the magnet. 
    [B] The magnet is moved in the direction of the loop.
    [C] The loop and the magnet are moved in opposite direction with same speed.
    [D] The loop and the magnet are moved in one direction with same speed.
  14. Which instrument is used for converting electrical energy into mechanical energy?
    [A] Electric generator [B] Electric motor [C] Electric iron [D] Electric oven
  15. On which principle does the electric generator work?
    [A] Electrical energy is converted to mechanical energy.
    [B] Electrical energy is converted to thermal energy.
    [C] Mechanical energy is converted to electrical energy.
    [D] Electrical energy is converted to light energy.
  16. The magnitude of AC voltage used in India is _____ and the frequency is _____.
    [A] 110V, 60Hz [B] 110V, 50Hz [C] 220V, 50Hz [D] 220V, 60Hz
  17. Which coloured insulation cover is used for earthing wire?
    [A] Red [B] Black [C] Green [D] Can be of any colour
  18. Which type of current is obtained from a battery?
    [A] AC [B] DC [C] Both AC and DC [D] Depends on type of battery
  19. Which of the following instruments is used to know the presence of electric current?
    [A] Fuse [B] Galvanometer [C] Voltmeter [D] Magnetic needle
  20. A fuse wire is...
    [A] a conductor [B] an insulator [C] a semi-conductor [D] made of any material
  21. ______ is the rule used to know the direction of the induced current in the circuit.
    [A] Fleming's left hand rule [B] Fleming's right hand rule 
    [C] Right hand thumb rule    [D] Ampere's rule
  22. How many times does an Alternating current (AC) with frequency 50Hz change its direction?
    [A] 25 [B] 50 [C] 100 [D] 200
  23. At the centre of which of the following four circular rings the magnetic field is the strongest for equal magnitude of current?

    [A] Figure A [B] Figure B [C] Figure C [D] Figure D
  24. The magnetism of magnets is maximum...
    [A] at poles [B] at the centre [C] at the axis [D] everywhere in the magnet
  25. Within a bar magnet, the magnetic field lines are...
    [A] from N to S [B] from S to N [C] absent [D] in both directions
  26. The strength of magnetic field produced in a current carrying straight conductor is...
    [A] directly proportional to the distance from the wire 
    [B] directly proportional to the magnitude of the current in wire
    [C] inversely proportional to the magnitude of the current in wire
    [D] independent of the magnitude of the current in wire
  27. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is...
    [A] strong at N pole and weak at S pole
    [B] strong at S pole and weak at N pole
    [C] uniform throughout 
    [D] zero
  28. What is not true?
    [A] A solenoid is an electromagnet. [B] A solenoid is a temporary magnet.
    [C] A solenoid is a permanent magnet. [D] A solenoid is like a bar magnet.
  29. A fuse wire is generally made of...
    [A] copper [B] aluminium [C] alloy of lead and tin [D] alloy of copper and lead
  30. In our domestic electric supply, we use following three colours of insulation cover on wires:
    [A] Red, blue, green     [B] Red, yellow, blue
    [C] Black, green, yellow [D] Red, black, green
  31. The current passing through two separate lines (circuits) of our houses is _____ A and _____ A.
    [A] 5, 10 [B] 5, 15 [C] 10, 15 [D] 2, 5
  32. Which of the following is not a permanent magnet?
    [A] Magnetic needle [B] Bar magnet [C] Electromagnet [D] Horse-shoe magnet
  33. The force experienced by a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field will be maximum when it is...
    [A] at an angle of 45° to the magnetic field 
    [B] at right angle to the magnetic field 
    [C] parallel to the magnetic field 
    [D] anti-parallel to the magnetic field
  34. A magnetic field will not exert force on...
    [A] a bar magnet     [B] a stationary electric charge
    [C] an electromagnet [D] an electric charge moving perpendicularly to it
  35. On which of the following does the electromotive force not depend?
    [A] The relative motion of the coil and magnet [B] Number of turns 
    [C] Rate of change of flux linked with the coil[D] Material of the coil
  36. During the situation of short-circuit, the current in the circuit...
    [A] reduces to zero [B] increases greatly [C] does not change [D] oscillates
  37. If many appliances are connected in a circuit, _____ may occur.
    [A] short-circuit [B] long-circuit [C] over loading [D] explosion
  38. At the centre of which of the following four circular rings the magnetic field is the strongest for equal magnitude of current?

    [A] Loop 1 [B] Loop 2 [C] Loop 3 [D] Loop 4
  39. Match the following in Part A with appropriate alternative in Part B.

    [A] 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a [B] 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
    [C] 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c [D] 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
  40. What is the potential difference of the current flowing in the insulated wires in America?
    [A] 220 V [B] 100 V [C] 110 V [D] 60 V
  41. _____ current line is connected to the air-conditioning machine.
    [A] 20 A [B] 15 A [C] 10 A [D] 5 A
  42. If the current flowing through each turn of a solenoid is in the same direction, the magnetic field produced by n turns will be ____ with the magnetic field due to each turn.
    [A] added [B] subtracted [C] multiplied [D] divided
  43. The magnitude of the induced current due to the relative motion of coil and a magnet does not depend on...
    [A] speed of the relative motion [B] number of turns of coil
    [C] resistivity of wire of coil  [D] pole strength of the magnet
  44. Which of the following statements is not suitable with reference to Direct Current(DC)?
    [A] Electric current flows always from positive pole to negative pole.
    [B] The value of electric current is always constant with time.
    [C] Its production is cheap
    [D] More energy is wasted in its conduction

  45. [A][B][C][D]


ANSWERS


(1) A (2) D (3) D (4) B (5) C (6) D (7) C (8) B (9) C (10) A (11) C (12) A (13) D (14) B (15) C (16) C (17) C (18) B (19) B (20) A (21) B (22) C (23) A (24) A (25) B (26) B (27) C (28) C (29) C (30) D (31) B (32) C (33) B (34) B (35) D (36) B (37) C (38) D (39) D (40) C (41) B (42) C (43) C (44) C (45)

Friday, December 20, 2013

Chapter 6 : UNIVERSE

Choose Appropriate Alternative



  1. Which of the following is a star?
    [A] Sun [B] Phobos [C] Asteroid [D] Comet
  2. Which of the following is not a member of our solar system?
    [A] Asteroid [B] Shooting star [C] Sun [D] Artificial satellite
  3. What is the periodic time of Halley's comet?
    [A] 67 years [B] 76 years [C] 86 years [D] 100 years
  4. Matter in the core region of the Sun is in _____ state.
    [A] solid [B] liquid [C] gaseous [D] plasma
  5. _____ is the most brilliant planet of our solar system.
    [A] Earth [B] Venus [C] Jupiter [D] Mars
  6. Poles of Mars are covered by...
    [A] dry-ice [B] water-ice [C] nitrogen [D] iron
  7. _____ was the first person to land on moon.
    [A] Yuri gagarin [B] Aleksi Leonov [C] Kalpana Chawla [D] Neil Armstrong
  8. The distance of a geostationary satellite above Earth's surface is _____ km.
    [A] 43000 [B]  37956 [C] 35786 [D] 23123
  9. Using telescope, who discovered four large moons of Jupiter in 17th century?
    [A] Galileo [B] Kepler [C] Newton [D] Hubble
  10. The first imaging X-ray telescope launches by NASA in 1978 was named...
    [A] Galileo [B] Kepler [C] Einstein [D] Hubble
  11. The X-ray radio telescope 'Einstein' was renamed_____ in 1999 by NASA.
    [A] Galileo [B] Hubble [C] Chandra [D] Kepler
  12. Who presented 'Geo-centric' model of Universe?
    [A] Copernicus [B] Galileo [C] Kepler [D] Ptolemy
  13. Who presented 'Helio-centric' model of Universe?
    [A] Copernicus [B] Galileo [C] Plato [D] Ptolemy
  14. Who discovered the laws of planetary motion?
    [A] Copernicus [B] Kepler [C] Galileo [D] Newton
  15. 'There is no obvious centre of the Universe'. this fact is suggested by...
    [A] Newton's first law of motion [B] Kepler's laws of planetary motion
    [C] Einstein's theory of relativity [D] Universal law of gravitation
  16. The estimated age of our solar system is _____ years.
    [A] 3.72 billion [B] 4.568 billion [C] 4.923 billion [D] 4.865 billion
  17. About _____% of the mass of the solar system is concentrated in Sun.
    [A] 97.56 [B] 96.98 [C] 99.86 [D] 98.96
  18. The planets are kept in their orbits by...
    [A] centripetal force [B] centrifugal force [C] nuclear force [D] magnetic force
  19. The diameter of Sun is about _____ km.
    [A] 15,29,000 [B] 15,92,000 [C] 14,29,000 [D] 13,92,000
  20. The temperature in the core region of Sun is about _____ K.
    [A] 0.5 crore [B] 1.0 crore [C] 1.05 crore [D] 1.5 crore
  21. Einstein's mass-energy relation is...
    [A] E = Δm.c [B] E = Δm.c2 [C] E = (Δm)2.c[D] E = (Δm.c)2
  22. During thermonuclear fusion process taking place in Sun, four hydrogen nuclei fuse to form a nucleus of...
    [A] carbon [B] helium [C] heavy hydrogen [D] radium
  23. At the surface of Sun, the temperature is about _____ K.
    [A] 3000 [B] 4500 [C] 6000 [D] 15000
  24. Sun spots result due to variation in...
    [A] Earth's magnetic field [B] Sun's magnetic field 
    [C] Earth's temperature   [D] Sun's temperature
  25. The thickness of photosphere of Sun is about _____ km.
    [A] 400 [B] 600 [C] 800 [D] 1000
  26. Which of the following is not a terrestrial planet?
    [A] Earth [B] Mercury [C] Mars [D] Jupiter
  27. Which of the following is not a Jovian planet?
    [A] Earth [B] Jupiter [C] Saturn [D] Neptune
  28. _____ is the smallest planet of our solar system.
    [A] Mercury [B] Earth [C] Venus [D] Pluto
  29. The ratio of the mass of Mercury to mass of Earth is...
    [A] 1:12 [B] 12:1 [C] 1:18 [D] 18:1
  30. The daytime and night-time temperatures on Mercury are ______ and ______, respectively.
    [A] 427°C, 173°C [B] 427°C, 100°C [C] 427°C, -173°C [D] 472°C, -173°C
  31. Which planets have no moon?
    [A] Mercury and Mars [B] Venus and Mars [C] Mercury and Venus [D] Venus and saturn
  32. The Sun rises in the west on...
    [A] Mercury [B] Venus [C] Mars [D] Neptune
  33. Which pair of the planets forms neighbours of Earth?
    [A] Mercury, Venus [B] Venus, Mars [C] Mercury, Mars [D] Mars, Jupiter
  34. The atmosphere of Venus largely consists of clouds of...
    [A] O2 [B] H2 [C] CO2 [D] N2
  35. Phobos and Deimos are the moons of...
    [A] Mars [B] Venus [C] Uranus [D] Saturn
  36. Jupiter is about _____ times bigger than the Earth.
    [A] 1000 [B] 1200 [C] 1400 [D] 1600
  37. Saturn is about _____ times bigger than the Earth.
    [A] 450 [B] 550 [C] 650 [D] 850
  38. _____ is the largest moon of Saturn.
    [A] Phobos [B] Ceres [C] Triton [D] Titan
  39. Uranus is about _____ times bigger than the Earth.
    [A] 37 [B] 46 [C] 64 [D] 84
  40. Triton and Nerid are moons of...
    [A] Neptune [B] Uranus [C] Jupiter [D] Mars
  41. The orbit of _____ is highly elliptical.
    [A] Venus [B] Neptune [C] Uranus [D] Pluto
  42. There are about _____ asteroids.
    [A] 1 million [B] 1 lac [C] 10,000 [D] 50,000
  43. The diameter of the largest known asteroid, Ceres, is about _____ km.
    [A] 100 [B] 400 [C] 1000 [D] 4000
  44. The diameter of the asteroid, Vesta, is about _____ km.
    [A] 100 [B] 400 [C] 1000 [D] 4000
  45. Meteors are seen in large numbers during the period between...
    [A] August to November [B] November to February 
    [C] March to May       [D] June to August
  46. If an object entering Earth's atmosphere from space falls on Earth, it is called...
    [A] a comet [B] a meteor [C] a meteorite [D] an asteroid
  47. If the surface temperature of a star is very low, the star appears...
    [A] blue [B] white [C] red [D] yellow
  48. If the surface temperature of a star is very high, the star appears...
    [A] blue [B] white [C] red [D] yellow
  49. There are _____ nakshatras.
    [A] 22 [B] 24 [C] 25 [D] 27
  50. The angular region of every nakshatra is...
    [A] 12° 30' [B] 13° 20' [C] 14° 20' [D] 12° 40'
  51. The sun remains in one nakshatra for about _____ days.
    [A] 15 [B] 27 [C] 30 [D] 13.5
  52. The diameter of Milky Way is about _____ light years.
    [A] 15,000 [B] 30,000 [C] 60,000 [D] 1,00,000
  53. The Sun is situated about _____ light years away from the galactic centre.
    [A] 15,000 [B] 30,000 [C] 50,000 [D] 75,000
  54. The Sun completes one revolution around the galactic centre in _____ years.
    [A] 15 crore [B] 22.5 crore [C] 25.2 crore [D] 30 crore
  55. There are about _____ stars in a galaxy.
    [A] 1011 [B] 1013 [C] 1019 [D] 1022
  56. There are about _____ stars in the Universe.
    [A] 1011 [B] 1013 [C] 1019 [D] 1022
  57. The period of the slowest observed pulsar is...
    [A] 8 seconds [B] 80 seconds [C] 8 minutes [D] 80 minutes
  58. Who was the pioneer of space travel?
    [A] Albert Einstein [B] Yuri Gagarin [C] Tsiolkowsky [D] Kaspersky
  59. The first artificial satellite launched in space was...
    [A] Sputnik-I [B] Explorer-I [C] Challenger [D] Atlantis
  60. The first human being who visited space was...
    [A] Yuri Gagarin [B] Neil Armstrong [C] Aleksi Leonov [D] Timolov
  61. The first space-walk was done by _____ on 18th March,1965.
    [A] Yuri Gagarin [B] Neil Armstrong [C] Aleksi Leonov [D] Timolov
  62. The first space-shuttle launched on 12th April, 1981, was...
    [A] Challenger [B] Columbia [C] Discovery [D] Atlantis
  63. The full form of LHC is...
    [A] Large Hydrogen Collider  [B] Large Hedron Collider
    [C] Liquid Hydrogen Collider [D] Liquid Hedron Collider
  64. The first satellite launched by India in 1980 was...
    [A] INSAT-1 [B] Rohini [C] Aryabhatt [D] IRS-1
  65. The minimum speed required for a satellite to revolve around the Earth in an orbit is...
    [A] 8 km/h [B] 8 km/min [C] 8 km/s [D] 8 m/s
  66. The height of a satellite in polar orbit is about _____ km.
    [A] 200 [B] 700 [C] 1000 [D] 35786
  67. The repeating time of remote-sensing satellite of India is...
    [A] 16 hours [B] 16 days [C] 21 hours [D] 21 days
  68. For DTH (Direct to Home) TV transmission, India has launched...
    [A] Rohini [B] INSAT-1 [C] Cartosat [D] INSAT-4
  69. The strength of the gravitational field of Mercury is about _____ times that of the Earth.
    [A] 1/3 [B] 1/2 [C] 3 [D] 2
  70. _____ is the largest planet of our solar system.
    [A] Earth [B] Jupiter [C] Saturn [D] Neptune
  71. There are _____ beautiful rings around Saturn.
    [A] 2 [B] 3 [C] 4 [D] 5
  72. The diameter of Earth is de. Then the diameter of Uranus is _____ x de.
    [A] 1.7 [B] 2.7 [C] 3.7 [D] 4.7
  73. Asteroids revolve around...
    [A] Earth [B] Mars [C] Jupiter [D] Sun
  74. The tail of a comet is the longest when...
    [A] it is nearest to the Sun [B] it is farthest from the Sun
    [C] it is far from the Earth [D] it is near Saturn
  75. Which of the following is a star?
    [A] A tailed star [B] A shooting star [C] Sun [D] Andromeda
  76. The moon undergoes an angular displacement of _____ in 1 day.
    [A] 30° [B] 20° 40' [C] 15° 45' [D] 13° 20'
  77. The moon stays in one nakshatra for about...
    [A] 30 days [B] 13.5 days [C] 7 days [D] 1 day
  78. Sun rises _____ minutes _____ than the time of its rise the previous day.
    [A] 4, earlier [B] 4, later [C] 8.5, earlier [D] 8.5 later
  79. There are about _____ galaxies in the Universe.
    [A] 1011 [B] 1012 [C] 1022 [D] 1023
  80. A rocket works on the principle of...
    [A] Newton's first law of motion [B] Newton's second law of motion 
    [C] Newton's third law of motion [D] Newton's law of gravitation
  81. Which series of satellites is used by India for astronomical observations?
    [A] Agni [B] Rohini [C] INSAT [D] Kalpana
  82. 1 light year = _______ km.
    [A] 4.96 x 1012 [B] 6.49 x 1012[C] 9.46 x 1012 [D] 6.94 x 1012
  83. 1 light year = ______ Au.
    [A] 63240 [B] 36240 [C] 24360 [D] 60234
  84. Astronomical Unit (Au) is the mean distance between...
    [A] Earth and Moon [B] Earth and Jupiter [C] Earth and Sun [D] Sun and Jupiter
  85. 1 Astronomical unit (Au) = _____ km.
    [A] 1.946 x 108 [B] 1.496 x 108 [C] 4.96 x 108 [D] 9.46 x 108
  86. According to _______ there may be more than one universe.
    [A] John Kepler [B] Stephen Hawking [C] Albert Einstein [D] Yuri Gagarin
  87. Which planet of our solar system has maximum number of satellites?
    [A] Mars [B] Saturn [C] Jupiter [D] Neptune
  88. Which of the following planets has very large temperature difference between day-time and night-time?
    [A] Mercury [B] Venus [C] Earth [D] Neptune
  89. Halley's comet was last seen in the year _____.
    [A] 1968 [B] 1978 [C] 1986 [D] 1999
  90. Match the statements in Part A with the name of the planet in Part B.

    [A] 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d [B] 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a 
    [C] 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b [D] 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
  91. Match appropriate pairs in Part A and Part B.

    [A] 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a [B] 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
    [C] 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b [D] 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
  92. Match the satellites in Part A with their functions in Part B.

    [A] 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d [B] 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
    [C] 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b [D] 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
  93. _____ satellite gives information regarding the life in oceans and the environment around it.
    [A] EDUSAT [B] RESOURCESAT [C] INSAT-4A [D] METSAT
  94. How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation about its own axis?
    [A] 24 hours [B] 23 hours 58 minutes [C] 23 hours 57 minutes [D] 23 hours 56 minutes
  95. At what speed does the Sun revolve around the galactic centre?
    [A] 30,000 km/h [B] 250 m/s [C] 250 km/s [D] 250 km/h
  96. _____ is used for launching 1000-2000 kg class of remote sensing satellites.
    [A] GSLV [B] MSLV [C] PSLV [D] CSLV

  97. [A][B][C][D]

  98. [A][B][C][D]

ANSWERS


(1) A (2) D (3) B (4) D (5) B (6) A (7) D (8) C (9) A (10) C (11) C (12) D (13) A (14) B (15) C (16) B (17) C (18) A (19) D (20) D (21) B (22) B (23) C (24) B (25) A (26) D (27) A (28) A (29) C (30) C (31) C (32) B (33) B (34) C (35) A (36) C (37) D (38) D (39) C (40) A (41) D (42) B (43) C (44) B (45) A (46) C (47) C (48) A (49) D (50) B (51) D (52) D (53) B (54) B (55) A (56) D (57) A (58) C (59) A (60) A (61) C (62) B (63) B (64) B (65) C (66) C (67) D (68) D (69) A (70) B (71) B (72) C (73) D (74) A (75) C (76) D (77) D (78) A (79) A (80) C (81) B (82) C (83) A (84) C (85) B (86) B (87) C (88) A (89) C (90) C (91) B (92) D (93) B (94) D (95) C (96) C (97)

Sunday, December 15, 2013

Chapter 7 : ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

Choose Appropriate Alternative


  1. What is formed by the reaction of a non-metal oxide with water?
    [A] Acid [B] Base [C] Salt [D] Metal
  2. Acid + Metal oxide ---> ______
    [A] Base + water [B] Salt + water [C] Base + salt [D] Metal + salt
  3. Which gas is produced by the reaction of a base with a metal?
    [A] Carbon dioxide [B] Dioxygen [C] Dihydrogen [D] Dinitrogen
  4. 500 ml aqueous solution is prepared by dissolving 2 moles of HCl in water. What will be the molarity of this solution?
    [A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 3 [D] 4
  5. What is correct for acidic aqueous solution?
    [A] [H3O+] = 10-7M [B] [H3O+] < 10-7M [C] [H3O+] > 10-7M [D] [H3O+] < [OH-]
  6. Which of the following solutions is most basic?
    [A] pH = 8.2 [B] pH = 9.3 [C] pH = 11.5 [D] pH = 10.6
  7. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
    [A] pH scale was presented by S.P.L.Sorensen. 
    [B] pH scale ranges from 0 to 14.
    [C] pH scale is applicable to only non-aqueous solutions.
    [D] pH scale is applicable to only aqueous solutions.
  8. What is used to measure the exact pH of an aqueous solution?
    [A] pH paper [B] Litmus paper [C] pH meter [D] Universal indicator
  9. Which of the following substances is an antacid?
    [A] NaCl [B] Mg(OH)2 [C] HCl [D] H2SO4
  10. How many times less basic is an aqueous solution having pH = 11 than that having pH = 8?
    [A] 3 [B] 30 [C] 300 [D] 1000
  11. Which of the following is a strong acid?
    [A] Acetic acid [B] Citric acid [C] Nitric acid [D] Oxalic acid
  12. What type of substance is NH3?
    [A] Strong acid [B] Weak acid [C] Strong base [D] Weak base
  13. pH + pOH = ______.
    [A] 7 [B] 0 [C] 14 [D] 10
  14. Which of the following formulas is correct?
    [A] Mole = molecular mass/weight [B] Mole = weight /molecular mass 
    [C] Mole = weight/litre       [D] Mole = molecular mass/litre
  15. What will be the pH of aqueous solution of NH4Cl?
    [A] pH = 7 [B] pH > 7 [C] pH < 7 [D] pH = 0
  16. Which of the following solutions will have pH = 2?
    [A] 0.01M HCl [B] 0.02M HCl [C] 0.01M H2SO4 [D] 0.02M H2SO4
  17. What will be the concentration of OH- ion in aqueous solution having pH = 8?
    [A] 1 x 10-8M [B] 1 x 10-6M [C] 8 x 10-6M [D] 8 x 10-8M
  18. The pH values of solutions A, B, C and D are 1.9, 2.5, 2.1 and 3.0, respectively. Their order of acidity will be...
    [A] A < C < B < D [B] D < C < B < A [C] D < B < C < A [D] D > C > B > A
  19. Which solution will be basic?
    [A] [H3O+] = 10-5M [B] [H3O+] = 10-12M
    [C] [H3O+] = 10-7M [D] [H3O+] = 10-4M
  20. Which substance is present in the poison of honey bee?
    [A] Lime [B] Calcium phosphate [C] Mellitin [D] Pepsin
  21. Who gave operational definitions of acids and bases?
    [A] Robert Boyle [B] Arrhenius [C] Bronsted-Lowry [D] Sorensen
  22. Who gave acid-base theory based on the process of ionization?
    [A] Robert Boyle [B] Arrhenius [C] Bronsted-Lowry [D] Lewis
  23. According to Arrhenius, base is a substance producing _____ ion in aqueous solution.
    [A] H+ [B] OH- [C] H3O+ [D] K+
  24. Which of the following does not have independent existence?
    [A] H+ [B] H2 [C] H3O+ [D] NH3
  25. According to Bronsted-Lowry, an acid is a substance which...
    [A] accepts proton from another substance [B] donates proton to another substance 
    [C] does not ionize [D] does not produce OH- ion in aqueous solution
  26. According to Bronsted-Lowry, a base is a substance which...
    [A] does not form covalent bond [B] accepts proton from another substance
    [C] ionizes completely         [D] donates proton to another substance
  27. The bond between H+ and H2O in H3O+ is...
    [A] ionic [B] covalent [C] coordinate covalent [D] metallic
  28. According to Bronsted-Lowry, when HCl gas is dissolved in water, water behaves as...
    [A] an acid [B] a base [C] a neutral substance [D] a salt
  29. According to Bronsted-Lowry, when ammonia gas is dissolved in water, water behaves as...
    [A] an acid [B] a base [C] a neutral substance [D] a salt
  30. According to the acid-base theory by Bronsted-Lowry, water is...
    [A] an acid [B] a base [C] amphoteric [D] neutral
  31. The formula of carbonic acid is...
    [A] H2SO3 [B] CO2 [C] H2CO3 [D] HCO3
  32. Which of the following gives an acid when dissolved in water?
    [A] NH3 [B] Na2O [C] CaO [D] SO3
  33. Which of the following gives a basic solution when dissolved in water?
    [A] CO2 [B] SO2 [C] SO3 [D] Na2O
  34. Which of the following metals generally do not react with acids?
    [A] Au [B] Ag [C] Pt [D] All three
  35. Which of the following metals easily reacts with an acid?
    [A] Ca [B] Au [C] Ag [D] Pt
  36. When nitric acid reacts with a metal like zinc,______ gas is produced.
    [A] NO2 [B] H2 [C] NO [D] N2O
  37. The reaction between an acid and a base is called...
    [A] acid hydrolysis [B] hydrolysis [C] alkalisation [D] neutralization
  38. When an acid reacts with a metal carbonate/bicarbonate _____ gas is produced.
    [A] CO2 [B] CO [C] CO2 or CO [D] both CO2 and CO
  39. The formula of sodium zincate is...
    [A] NaZn2O4 [B] Na2ZnO2 [C] NaZnO3 [D] Na2Zn2(OH)3
  40. The unit of molarity is...
    [A] mole/kg [B] kg/mole [C] mole/litre [D] kg/litre
  41. The molecular mass of NaOH is 40 g/mole. How much NaOH is required to prepare 250 ml 1M solution of NaOH?
    [A] 10g [B] 40g [C] 160g [D] 100g
  42. The molecular mass of H2SO4 is 98. If 29.4g H2SO4 is dissolved in water to make 500 ml solution, what is its molarity?
    [A] 0.3M [B] 0.6M [C] 0.15M [D] 0.5M
  43. When 112g of KOH is dissolved in water to make 4 litre solution, its molarity is 0.5M. What is the molecular mass of KOH?
    [A] 112 [B] 224 [C] 56 [D] 28
  44. The formula for the pH of an aqueous solution is...
    [A] pH = log10 [H3O+] [B] pH = -log10 [H3O+]
    [C] pH = log10 [OH-][D] pH = -log10 [OH-]
  45. At 298 K, the concentration of H3O+ in pure water is...
    [A] 1 x 10-7M [B] 1 x 107M [C] 7.0M [D] 0.7M
  46. If the colour of pH paper turns pink in an aqueous solution, then the approximate pH of the solution is...
    [A] 8 [B] 6 [C] 4 [D] 2
  47. If the colour of pH paper turns blue in an aqueous solution, then the approximate pH of the solution is...
    [A] 10 [B] 8 [C] 7 [D] 5
  48. The range of pH suitable for efficient biological processes in humans is...
    [A] 5.6 to 6.5 [B] 6.5 to 7.0 [C] 7.0 to 7.8 [D] 7.8 to 8.7
  49. The range of pH suitable for proper activity of enzyme pepsin in stomach is...
    [A] 8 to 9 [B] 6 to 8 [C] 4 to 6 [D] 1 to 3
  50. The range of pH of the soil suitable for better growth and development of plants is...
    [A] 5.6 to 6.5 [B] 6.5 to 7.3 [C] 7.3 to 7.8 [D] 7.8 to 8.7
  51. Farmers use _____ for neutralization of acidic soil.
    [A] CaSO4.2H2O [B] CaO [C] H2CO3 [D] CH3COOH
  52. Farmers use _____ for neutralization of alkaline soil.
    [A] CaSO4.2H2O [B] CaO [C] NaOH [D] KOH
  53. The external surface of our teeth is made up of...
    [A] calcium sulphate [B] calcium carbonate [C] calcium phosphate [D] calcium chloride
  54. The external surface of our teeth gets corroded if the pH within the mouth is...
    [A] less than 5.5      [B] between 5.5 and 7.0 
    [C] between 7.0 and 7.5 [D] beyond 7.5
  55. Red ants contain _____ in their body.
    [A] citric acid [B] formic acid [C] acetic acid [D] oxalic acid
  56. Melittin is a polypeptide consisting of _____ amino acids.
    [A] 20 [B] 22 [C] 24 [D] 26
  57. The pH values for two aqueous solutions 'A' and 'B' are 2 and 5, respectively. If the concentration of H3O+ in 'A' is 'x' mole/lit, then the concentration of H3O+ in 'B' is _____ mole/lit.
    [A] x/3 [B] 3x [C] 2x/5 [D] x/1000
  58. If (pH of solution A - pH of solution B) = x, then the ratio of concentrations of H3O+ in solution B and solution A is...
    [A] x [B] 10x [C] 10x [D] x/10
  59. If (pH of solution A - pH of solution B) = x, then the ratio of concentrations of OH- in solution A and solution B is...
    [A] x/10 [B] 10x [C] 10x [D] x
  60. If the difference between pH and pOH of a solution is 4, then pH = ______.
    [A] 10 [B] 9 [C] 8 [D] 6
  61. If the difference between pOH and pH of a solution is 4, then pH = ______.
    [A] 4 [B] 5 [C] 6 [D] 8
  62. Which of the following is a weak acid?
    [A] Sulphuric acid [B] Nitric acid [C] Citric acid [D] Hydrochloric acid
  63. The concentration of H3O+ in 1 M aqueous solution of sulphuric acid is...
    [A] 1 M [B] 2 M [C] 0.5 M [D] 0 M
  64. The concentration of SO4-2 in 1 M aqueous solution of sulphuric acid is...
    [A] 1 M [B] 2 M [C] 0.5 M [D] 0.01 M
  65. The pH of a salt solution obtained by the reaction between a strong acid and a strong base is...
    [A] is 7 [B] is less than 7 [C] is more than 7 [D] cannot be determined
  66. Sodium chloride is a salt of...
    [A] a weak acid and a weak base    [B] a strong acid and a strong base
    [C] a weak acid and a strong base [D] a strong acid and a weak base
  67. Which of the following is a salt of a strong acid and a strong base?
    [A] Na2CO3 [B] NH4NO3 [C] NH4Cl [D] KNO3
  68. Which of the following is a salt of a weak acid and a strong base?
    [A] NaCl [B] KNO3 [C] Na2CO3 [D] NH4NO3
  69. Which of the following is a salt of a strong acid and a weak base?
    [A] NaCl [B] Na2CO3 [C] NH4Cl [D] CH3COONH4
  70. Which of the following is a salt of a weak acid and a weak base?
    [A] NaCl [B] KNO3 [C] Na2CO3 [D] (NH4)2CO3
  71. The aqueous solution of a salt obtained by the reaction between a weak acid and a weak base is...
    [A] acidic [B] basic [C] neutral [D] any one of A, B and C
  72. Which gas is liberated by the reaction of an acid with a carbonate?
    [A] H2 [B] CO2 [C] N2 [D] O2
  73. The number of moles of a solute dissolved in 1 litre solution is called...
    [A] normality [B] molality [C] molarity [D] acidity
  74. Which of the following acids is secreted in our stomach?
    [A] H2SO4 [B] HCl [C] HNO3 [D] Citric acid
  75. A substance 'Z' ionizes completely in an aqueous solution releasing H3O+ ion. The substance 'Z' is a...
    [A] strong acid [B] strong base [C] weak acid [D] weak base
  76. NaOH is ...
    [A] a salt [B] a weak base [C] a strong base [D] a strong acid
  77. Which of the following is the correct formula for 'mole'?
    [A] Molecular mass/weight [B] weight/litre [C] weight/molecular mass [D] litre/weight
  78. What is the nature of an aqueous solution having pOH = 5?
    [A] Acidic [B] Basic [C] Neutral [D] Amphoteric
  79. What is the molecular formula of milk of magnesia?
    [A] Mg(OH)2 [B] MgCO3 [C] NaHCO3 [D] MgO
  80. What will be the value of pH of 10-5 M NaOH solution?
    [A] 5 [B] 8 [C] 9 [D] 10
  81. When blue litmus paper is dipped in an aqueous solution 'A', its colour does not change. Which of the following is true for 'A'?
    [A] It is neutral. [B] It is basic. [C] It is not acidic. [D] It is acidic or neutral.
  82. Match the pairs from Part A and Part B

    [A] 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p [B] 1-r, 2-p, 3-q, 4-s
    [C] 1-r, 2-p, 3-s, 4-q [D] 1-q, 2-p, 3-r, 4-s
  83. Match the names in Part A with appropriate formula in Part B.

    [A] 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-t [B] 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-t 
    [C] 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r [D] 1-r, 2-s, 3-p, 4-q
  84. If there is a decrease in the concentration of H3O+, what is the change in the pH of the solution?
    [A] No change [B] Increase [C] Decrease [D] may increase or decrease
  85. Neutralization between a weak acid and a weak base results in the formation of a _____ salt.
    [A] acidic [B] basic [C] neutral [D] any of these

  86. [A][B][C][D]


ANSWERS


(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) C (6) C (7) C (8) C (9) B (10) D (11) C (12) D (13) C (14) B (15) C (16) A (17) B (18) C (19) B (20) C (21) A (22) B (23) B (24) A (25) B (26) B (27) C (28) B (29) A (30) C (31) C (32) D (33) D (34) D (35) A (36) C (37) D (38) A (39) B (40) C (41) A (42) B (43) C (44) B (45) A (46) D (47) A (48) C (49) D (50) B (51) B (52) A (53) C (54) A (55) B (56) D (57) D (58) C (59) B (60) B (61) B (62) C (63) B (64) A (65) A (66) B (67) D (68) C (69) C (70) D (71) D (72) B (73) C (74) B (75) A (76) C (77) C (78) B (79) A (80) C (81) C (82) D (83) B (84) B (85) D (86) (87) (88) (89) (90) (91)

Sunday, December 8, 2013

Chapter 8 : METALS

Choose Appropriate Alternative


  1. What is the chemical formula of alumina?
    [A] Al2O3 [B] Al2O3.2H2O [C] Al2O3.H2O [D] NaAlO2
  2. Which of the following reactions is called roasting?
    [A] ZnCO3(s) --> ZnO(s) + CO2(g) [B] 2ZnS(s) + 3O2(g) --> 2ZnO(s) + 2SO2(g) 
    [C] ZnO(s) + C(s) --> Zn(s) + CO(g) [D] Zn(s) + H2O(g) --> ZnO(s) + H2(g)
  3. Which of the following is an alloy?
    [A] Silver [B] Gallium [C] 22 Carat gold [D] 24 Carat gold
  4. During which of the following reactions is dihydrogen gas not produced under normal conditions?
    [A] Metal + dilute sulphuric acid [B] Metal + dilute hydrochloric acid 
    [C] Metal + dilute nitric acid    [D] Metal + water
  5. In which of the following, is displacement reaction possible?
    [A] Solution of NaCl + coin of copper  [B] Solution of MgCl2 + coin of aluminium
    [C] Solution of FeSO4 + coin of silver [D] Solution of AgNO3 + coin of copper
  6. Which of the following reactions is not possible?
    [A] Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) --> ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) [B] Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) --> ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
    [C] Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) --> FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s) [D] Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq) --> CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
  7. By which reaction is a metal obtained from its oxide?
    [A] Liquefaction [B] Reduction [C] Calcination [D] Roasting
  8. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
    [A] Corrosion of copper takes place by contact with air and water.
    [B] The melting point and the boiling point of metals are low. 
    [C] Carbonate containing ores are converted to metal oxide by calcination. 
    [D] A more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its solution.
  9. Which alloy is used to solder electric wires?
    [A] Copper + zinc [B] Aluminium + magnesium [C] Lead + tin [D] Copper + tin
  10. Which metal is available in highest proportion on the earth?
    [A] Iron [B] Copper [C] Aluminum [D] Silver
  11. Which metal is used in thermometer?
    [A] Silver [B] Mercury [C] Sodium [D] Copper
  12. Which of the following substances is hygroscopic?
    [A] Cryolite [B] Feldspar [C] Anhydrous calcium chloride [D] Slag
  13. How many elements are known till today?
    [A] 112 [B] 113 [C] 114 [D] 115
  14. Most of the elements are found in the form of...
    [A] metals [B] nonmetals [C] metalloids [D] gases
  15. Which metal is generally used in packaging of food materials?
    [A] Copper [B] Iron [C] Aluminium [D] Zinc
  16. Which of the following is not an inert metal?
    [A] Gold [B] Silver [C] Tin [D] Platinum
  17. Which of the following metals is used for protection from radiation?
    [A] Gold [B] Lead [C] Silver [D] Aluminium
  18. Which of the following is considered a noble metal?
    [A] Aluminium [B] Silver [C] Copper [D] Sodium
  19. Which of the following metals is/are available in free state in nature?
    [A] Gold [B] Silver [C] Platinum [D] All three
  20. The formula of siderite is...
    [A] Fe2O3 [B] Fe3O4 [C] FeCO3 [D] FeS2
  21. The formula of bauxite is...
    [A] Al2O3 [B] Al2O3.2H2O [C] NaAlO2 [D] Na2AlF6
  22. Malachite is an ore of...
    [A] iron [B] silver [C] copper [D] calcium
  23. Which of the following is not an ore of calcium?
    [A] Limestone [B] Dolomite [C] Gypsum [D] Siderite
  24. The formula of gypsum is...
    [A] CaSO4.2H2O [B] CaCO3 [C] CaSO4.7H2O [D] Ca(OH)2
  25. Which of the following methods is based on the difference in densities of ore and impurity?
    [A] Centrifugation [B] Liquefaction [C] Froth floatation [D] Pulverizing
  26. Which of the following ores is concentrated by froth floatation?
    [A] Bauxite [B] Haematite [C] Copper pyrite [D] Dolomite
  27. Sulphide ores are converted to ores containing metal oxide by...
    [A] calcination [B] liquefaction [C] smelting [D] roasting
  28. Calcination is used to convert...
    [A] metal carbonate to metal oxide [B] metal oxide to metal carbonate 
    [C] calcium to calcium chloride [D] metal sulphide to metal oxide
  29. Oxide of which of the following metals cannot be reduced by carbon?
    [A] Zinc [B] Iron [C] Magnesium [D] Manganese
  30. Which of the following methods is not used for refining of metals?
    [A] Electrolysis [B] Liquefaction [C] Froth floatation [D] Fractional crystallization
  31. During electrolytic refining of a metal the insoluble impurities collected at the bottom of the cell form...
    [A] anode [B] anode mud [C] cathode [D] cathode mud
  32. What works as anode in electrolytic refining of a metal?
    [A] A rod of impure metal [B] A rod of pure metal [C] Graphite [D] Platinum
  33. What works as cathode in electrolytic refining of a metal?
    [A] A rod of impure metal [B] A rod of pure metal [C] Graphite [D] Platinum
  34. Which of the following metals is purified by electrolytic refining?
    [A] Iron [B] Lead [C] Tin [D] Copper
  35. Liquefaction method is used for refining of metals having...
    [A] low boiling point [B] high boiling point [C] low melting point [D] high melting point
  36. Which of the following metals is refined by liquefaction method?
    [A] Copper [B] Aluminium [C] Mercury [D] Tin
  37. Which of the following methods uses the principle of fractional crystallization?
    [A] Froth floatation [B] Liquefaction [C] Zone refining [D] Smelting
  38. Which of the following metals is purified by zone refining?
    [A] Silicon [B] Boron [C] Germanium [D] All three
  39. Which of the following is a semi-conductor?
    [A] Boron [B] Copper [C] Lead [D] Gold
  40. The melting point of alumina is...
    [A] 1578 K [B] 1875 K [C] 2348 K [D] 3284 K
  41. To bring down the melting point of alumina during Hall-Heroult process, we add ______ and ______.
    [A] NaCl, CaF2 [B] Na3AlF6, CaF2 [C] NaCl, Na3AlF6 [D] NaOH, NaCl
  42. Carbon (graphite) lining of electrolytic cell works as _____ in Hall-Heroult process.
    [A] anode [B] cathode [C] electrolyte [D] thermal stabilizer
  43. Alumina is obtained from bauxite by...
    [A] Hall-Heroult process [B] Bayer's process [C] Blast furnace [D] Calcination
  44. In blast furnace, during the manufacture of iron, the temperature in the bottom region is...
    [A] 1000 K [B] 1173 K [C] 1973 K [D] 2223 K
  45. What is the formula of slag formed in blast furnace?
    [A] Ca2SiO3 [B] Na2SiO3 [C] Ca2SiO2 [D] CaSiO3
  46. In blast furnace, the oxidation of molten iron is prevented by...
    [A] CO2 [B] CaCO3 [C] CaSiO3 [D] hot air
  47. The activity of metals is determined by...
    [A] displacement reaction  [B] combination reaction 
    [C] decomposition reaction [D] reaction with hydrogen
  48. The most reactive metal is...
    [A] sodium [B] potassium [C] calcium [D] zinc
  49. The least reactive metal is...
    [A] sodium [B] copper [C] gold [D] lead
  50. Which of the following is the true order of reactivity of metals?
    [A] Mg>Al>Zn>Fe [B] Mg> Zn>Al>Fe [C] Al>Mg>Fe>Zn [D] Fe>Zn>Al>Mg
  51. Which of the following metals exists in liquid form?
    [A] Sodium [B] Tin [C] Manganese [D] Gallium
  52. Which of the following metals is very soft?
    [A] Tin [B] Aluminium [C] Magnesium [D] Potassium
  53. We can prepare about ______ long wire from 1 gram of gold.
    [A] 500 m [B] 1000 m [C] 2000 m [D] 5000 m
  54. Which of the following metals is a poor conductor of heat and electricity?
    [A] Gold [B] Cobalt [C] Sodium [D] Lead
  55. The melting point of iron is...
    [A] 1218 K [B] 1281 K [C] 1812 K [D] 2181 K
  56. Generally metals form _____ oxides.
    [A] acidic [B] basic [C] neutral [D] acidic and neutral
  57. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
    [A] Al2O3 [B] Na2O [C] CaO [D] Fe2O3
  58. Which of the following metals does not react with cold water?
    [A] Sodium [B] Potassium [C] Magnesium [D] Calcium
  59. Stainless steel contains...
    [A] 70% Fe, 10% Cr, 20% Ni [B] 70% Fe, 20% cr, 10% Ni
    [C] 20% Fe, 10% Cr, 70% Ni [D] 10% Fe, 20% Cr, 70% Ni
  60. An alloy containing _____ is called amalgam.
    [A] zinc [B] aluminium [C] mercury [D] tin
  61. Brass is an alloy of...
    [A] iron and zinc [B] copper and tin [C] iron and nickel [D] copper and zinc
  62. Bronze is an alloy of...
    [A] iron and zinc [B] copper and tin [C] iron and nickel [D] copper and zinc
  63. Which of the following alloys is used in preparing surgical instruments?
    [A] Stainless steel [B] Brass [C] Bronze [D] Magnalium
  64. Which alloy is used in preparing scientific balance?
    [A] Stainless steel [B] Brass [C] Duralumin [D] Magnalium
  65. 22 carat gold contains about _____% gold.
    [A] 22 [B] 78.4 [C] 86.5 [D] 91.6
  66. 24 carat gold contains...
    [A] 24 parts gold, 2 parts copper [B] 22 parts gold, 2 parts copper 
    [C] 24 parts gold, 2 parts silver [D] None of the three
  67. What is the chemical formula of copper glance?
    [A] CuFeS2 [B] Cu2S [C] CuCl2 [D] Cu(OH)2
  68. Which of the following particles are wetted by turpentine?
    [A] Oxide ore particles    [B] Sand particles 
    [C] Carbonate ore particles [D] Sulphide ore particles
  69. Which of the following is not a chemical reducing agent?
    [A] Sulphur [B] Aluminium [C] Carbon [D] Carbon monoxide
  70. What is the concentration of sodium hydroxide used in Bayer's process?
    [A] 40% [B] 45% [C] 54% [D] 66%
  71. Which of the following metals can be cut with a knife?
    [A] Magnesium [B] Manganese [C] Antimony [D] Sodium
  72. Which metal is used in thermometers?
    [A] Mercury [B] Silver [C] Platinum [D] Aluminium
  73. For concentration of ore of which of the following metals is magnetic separation method used?
    [A] Copper [B] Iron [C] Aluminium [D] Tin
  74. The chemical formula of rust is...
    [A] FeO [B] Fe3O4 [C] Fe2O3.xH2O [D] FeSO4
  75. A thin layer of _____ is deposited on iron for galvanization.
    [A] Al [B] Zn [C] Cr [D] Ni
  76. Addition of small amount of _____ increases the hardness of iron.
    [A] C [B] Al [C] Zn [D] Sn
  77. Which metal is added to gold used for making ornaments?
    [A] Copper [B] Silver [C] Copper or silver [D] Aluminium
  78. Which of the following alloys is used for making statues and medals?
    [A] Brass [B] Duralumin [C] Magnalium [D] Bronze
  79. Which of the following alloy is used in soldering of electric wires?
    [A] Lead + tin [B] Copper + zinc [C] Zinc + tin [D] Copper + tin
  80. Aqueous solution of K2O is...
    [A] acidic [B] basic [C] neutral [D] amphoteric
  81. Which of the following alloys is used for manufacturing pressure c ookers?
    [A] Brass [B] Duralumin [C] Bronze [D] Magnalium
  82. Which phenomenon is seen in electroplating process for copper?
    [A] Positive electrode increases 
    [B] Positive electrode decreases
    [C] The concentration of Cu+2 increases in the electrolyte
    [D] The concentration of Cu+2 decreases in the electrolyte


ANSWERS


(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) C (5) D (6) D (7) B (8) B (9) C (10) C (11) B (12) C (13) C (14) A (15) C (16) C (17) B (18) B (19) D (20) C (21) B (22) C (23) D (24) A (25) A (26) C (27) D (28) A (29) C (30) C (31) B (32) A (33) B (34) D (35) C (36) D (37) C (38) D (39) A (40) C (41) B (42) B (43) B (44) C (45) D (46) C (47) A (48) B (49) C (50) A (51) D (52) D (53) C (54) D (55) C (56) B (57) A (58) C (59) B (60) C (61) D (62) B (63) A (64) D (65) D (66) D (67) B (68) D (69) A (70) B (71) D (72) A (73) B (74) C (75) B (76) A (77) C (78) D (79) A (80) B (81) B (82) B (83) (84) (85) (86) (87) (88) (89) (90) (91) (92) (93) (94) (95) (96) (97) (98) (99) (100)

Wednesday, December 4, 2013

Chapter 9 : NON-METALS

Choose Appropriate Alternative



  1. Which nonmetallic element is in liquid form?
    [A] Carbon [B] Hydrogen [C] Bromine [D] Phosphorus
  2. With which of the following elements does carbon not give reaction?
    [A] Dichlorine gas [B] Dihydrogen gas [C] Dioxygen gas [D] Dilute HCl acid
  3. Which of the following oxides is of neutral nature?
    [A] CO2 [B] SO2 [C] P2O5 [D] N2O
  4. Which of the following gases is insoluble in water?
    [A] H2 [B] CO2 [C] NH3 [D] SO2
  5. Which of the following gases is used as preservative in fruit juices and jams?
    [A] NH3 [B] SO2 [C] H2 [D] CO2
  6. Which of the following acids is called the "King of Chemicals"?
    [A] HNO3 [B] H2SO4 [C] HCl [D] CH3COOH
  7. Which of the following gases is combustible?
    [A] CO2 [B] H2 [C] SO2 [D] NH3
  8. Which catalyst is used in production of ammonia by Haber's process?
    [A] Al2O3 [B] K2O [C] V2O5 [D] Fe
  9. Match correct pairs from Part A and Part B.

    [A] a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 [B] a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
    [C] a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1 [D] a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
  10. Match correct pairs from Part A and Part B.

    [A] a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2 [B] a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
    [C] a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 [D] a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
  11. Match correct pairs from Part A and Part B.

    [A] a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 [B] a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
    [C] a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 [D] a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
  12. There are _____ non-metallic elements.
    [A] 16 [B] 18 [C] 19 [D] 20
  13. The process of preparation of vegetable ghee is called...
    [A] hydrogenation [B] hydrolysis [C] oxidation [D] chlorination
  14. _____ is a good conductor of electricity.
    [A] Diamond [B] Phosphorus [C] Pure water [D] Graphite
  15. Oxides of nonmetals are...
    [A] acidic [B] basic [C] neutral [D] either acidic or neutral
  16. Chlorides of nonmetals are generally...
    [A] solid [B] liquid [C] either liquid or gas [D] either solid or gas
  17. Hydrogen was discovered by _____ in 1766.
    [A] Archemedes [B] Cavendish [C] Fischer and Tropsch [D] Dalton
  18. Water gas is...
    [A] CO + H2O [B] CO2 + H2 [C] CO + H2 [D] CO2 + H2O
  19. Dihydrogen gas easily reduces the oxides of metals...
    [A] less active than Zn [B] more active than Zn 
    [C] except Zn           [D] of any reactivity
  20. The calorific value of _____ is the highest among fuels.
    [A] methane [B] hydrogen [C] butane [D] diesel
  21. Ammonia is manufactured by ____ process.
    [A] Haber's [B] Bayer's [C] Contact [D] Ostwald's
  22. _____ and _____ are used as promoters in Haber's process for ammonia.
    [A] Al2O3, KNO3 [B] Al2O3, NaCl [C] Al2O3, K2O [D] K2O, KNO3
  23. Aqueous solution ofd ammonia acts as...
    [A] a weak acid [B] a weak base [C] a strong acid [D] a strong base
  24. Nitric acid is manufactured from ammonia by...
    [A] Haber's process [B] Frasch process [C] Contact process [D] Ostwald's process
  25. The atomic number of sulphur is...
    [A] 14 [B] 15 [C] 16 [D] 17
  26. The electronic configuration of sulphur is...
    [A] 2,8,4 [B] 2,8,5 [C] 2,8,6 [D] 2,8,7
  27. Like carbon,_____ also possesses the property of catenation.
    [A] nitrogen [B] oxygen [C] sulphur [D] phosphorus
  28. Rhombic sulphur is stable at temperatures...
    [A] above 369 K [B] below 369 K [C] above 396 K [D] below 396 K
  29. A molecule of sulphur has _____ atoms in it.
    [A] 4 [B] 5 [C] 6 [D] 8
  30. The melting point of sulphur is...
    [A] 369 K [B] 388 K [C] 396 K [D] 423 K
  31. _____ is responsible pollutant gas for acid rain.
    [A] N2O [B] CO [C] NO [D] SO2
  32. Which catalyst is used in oxidation of SO2 to SO3?
    [A] Ag2O [B] Pt [C] Pd [D] V2O5
  33. Sulphuric acid is manufactured by _____ process.
    [A] Ostwald [B] Contact [C] Frasch [D] Haber's
  34. The formula of oleum is...
    [A] H2S2O7 [B] H2SO4 [C] H2S2O3 [D] H3S3O7
  35. SO2 is oxidized to SO3 during lead-chamber process by...
    [A] NO [B] N2O [C] NO2 [D] N2O3
  36. In concentrated sulphuric acid the proportion of water is...
    [A] 98% [B] 90% [C] 10% [D] 2%
  37. What is the total number of elements known till today?
    [A] 110 [B] 114 [C] 99 [D] 119
  38. Which of the following is used as electrode in dry cell?
    [A] Lead [B] Graphite [C] Coal [D] Copper
  39. Which of the following is present in protein, hair, wool, onion and garlic?
    [A] Silicon [B] Sulphur [C] Phosphorus [D] Ammonia
  40. Which of the following is used in substances called fungicides?
    [A] Sulphur [B] Phosphorus [C] Silicon [D] Nitrogen
  41. Which of the following nonmetallic elements possesses lustre?
    [A] Sulphur [B] Phosphorus [C] Iodine [D] Chlorine
  42. What is the molecular formula of Galena?
    [A] ZnS [B] CuFeS2 [C] Ca(OH)2 [D] PbS
  43. Which property of sulphur is the basis of Frasch process to obtain sulphur?
    [A] Low melting point [B] High melting point [C] Low boiling point [D] High boiling point
  44. What is the shape of monoclinic sulphur?
    [A] Hexagonal [B] Cubic [C] Needle-like [D] Tetrahedral
  45. What is the shape of rhombic sulphur?
    [A] Octahedral [B] Tetrahedral [C] Hexagonal [D] Needle-like
  46. Which of the following is used in vulcanization of rubber?
    [A] Sulphur [B] Phosphorus [C] Ammonia [D] Hydrogen
  47. Which of the following gases is combustible?
    [A] CO2 [B] H2 [C] O2 [D] NH3
  48. Which of the following is the molecular formula of sulphurous acid?
    [A] H2S [B] H2SO3 [C] H2SO4 [D] H2S2O7
  49. Apart from Contact process, which of the following is a method to manufacture sulphuric acid?
    [A] Haber's process [B] Ostwald's process [C] Lead-Chamber process [D] Fischr's process
  50. What is the proportion of sulphuric acid in dilute sulphuric acid?
    [A] 2% [B] 10% [C] 90% [D] 98%
  51. Element 'X' reacts with oxygen to give product 'Y', which on dissolving in water produces acid which turns blue litmus red. Choose the appropriate statement.
    [A] X is a nonmetal and Y is a basic oxide.  [B] X is a metal and Y is a basic oxide.
    [C] X is a nonmetal and Y is an acidic oxide. [D] X is a metal and Y is an acidic oxide.
  52. When SO2 gas is passed through decanted solution of lime, it becomes milky due to...
    [A] CaSO3 [B] CaCO3 [C] CuSO4 [D] CaSO4
  53. In a molecule of sulphur, each atom is bonded to ____ other atoms.
    [A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 7 [D] 8

  54. [A]  [B][C]  [D]

  55. [A] [B] [C]  [D]

ANSWERS


(1) C (2) D (3) D (4) A (5) B (6) B (7) B (8) D (9) B (10) D (11) C (12) B (13) A (14) D (15) D (16) C (17) B (18) C (19) A (20) B (21) A (22) C (23) B (24) D (25) C (26) C (27) C (28) B (29) D (30) B (31) D (32) D (33) B (34) A (35) C (36) D (37) B (38) B (39) B (40) A (41) C (42) D (43) A (44) C (45) A (46) A (47) B (48) B (49) C (50) B (51) C (52) A (53) B (54) (55) (56) (57) (58) (59) (60)

Wednesday, November 27, 2013

Chapter 10 : MINERAL COAL AND MINERAL OIL

Choose Appropriate Alternative


  1. Which is the primary state in transformation of coal?
    [A] Lignite [B] Bitumen [C] Anthracite [D] Peat
  2. What is the matured form of coal?
    [A] Lignite [B] Bitumen [C] Anthracite [D] Peat
  3. Which type of coal does not produce smoke or odour when burnt?
    [A] Lignite [B] Bitumen [C] Anthracite [D] Peat
  4. Which of the following is not obtained as a component during destructive distillation of coal?
    [A] Coal gas [B] Methane [C] Coal tar [D] Coke
  5. Which of the following is used in the production of water gas?
    [A] Coke [B] Coal tar [C] Coal gas [D] Ammonia
  6. Water gas is a mixture of...
    [A] carbon dioxide and hydrogen  [B] carbon and hydrogen 
    [C] carbon monoxide and hydrogen [D] ammonia and hydrogen
  7. Which gas is filled at high pressure in cylinders of house-hold cooking gas?
    [A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Propane [D] Butane
  8. Which component obtained during refining of petroleum is used as a solvent in petrochemicals?
    [A] Naphtha [B] Kerosene [C] Tar [D] Petroleum coke
  9. Which of the following is used in petromax to obtain light?
    [A] Petrol [B] Diesel [C] Kerosene [D] Butane
  10. Which is the chief hydrocarbon in natural gas?
    [A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Propane [D] Butane
  11. What is the molecular formula of ethene?
    [A] C2H6 [B] C2H2 [C] C2H4 [D] CH4
  12. What is the general formula of alkyne series?
    [A] CnH2n [B] CnH2n-2 [C] CnH2n+2 [D] CnHn
  13. What is the commercial name of ethyne?
    [A] Acrylic acid [B] Acetylene [C] Ethane [D] Oxyacetylene
  14. C3H8 is the molecular formula of...
    [A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Propane [D] Butane
  15. What is the angle between any two bonds in methane molecule?
    [A] 105° 54' [B] 109° 28' [C] 119° 28' [D] 190° 28'
  16. Which of the following is called a fossil fuel?
    [A] Mineral coal [B] Wood [C] Cowdung cake [D] All the given
  17. From where is mineral coal obtained in Gujarat?
    [A] Ankleshwar [B] Khambhat [C] Thangadh [D] Kalol
  18. What is used as fuel in jet-planes?
    [A] Gasoline [B] Diesel oil [C] Kerosene [D] All the given
  19. Peat coal contains about _____ % carbon.
    [A] 28 [B] 30 [C] 78 [D] 86
  20. The calorific value of lignite is about _____ kJ/g.
    [A] 22 [B] 27 [C] 30 [D] 40
  21. How much carbon does bituminous coal contain?
    [A] 28-30% [B] 30-45% [C] 56-68% [D] 78-86%
  22. What is the heat energy of bituminous coal?
    [A] 27 kJ/g [B] 30 kJ/g [C] 33 kJ/g [D] 35 kJ/g
  23. What is the carbon content of anthracite coal?
    [A] 28-30% [B] 30-49% [C] 78-86% [D] 94-98%
  24. What is the calorific value of anthracite coal?
    [A] 27 kJ/g [B] 30 kJ/g [C] 33 kJ/g [D] 35 kJ/g
  25. Coke contains about ______ % carbon.
    [A] 50 [B] 70 [C] 80 [D] 96
  26. The chief component of coal gas is...
    [A] CO [B] CO2 [C] H2 [D] CH4
  27. The first petroleum well was dug at...
    [A] California [B] Alaska [C] Kuwait [D] Titusville
  28. The first petroleum well was dug at _____ in India in 1867.
    [A] Makum [B] Ranchi [C] Ankleshwar [D] Allepy
  29. The general formula of paraffin (aliphatic) hydrocarbons is...
    [A] CnH2n-2 [B] CnH2n+2 [C] CnH2n[D] CnHn
  30. The general formula of naphthalene hydrocarbons is...
    [A] CnH2n-2 [B] CnH2n+2 [C] CnH2n[D] CnH2n-6
  31. >The general formula of aromatic hydrocarbons is...
    [A] CnH2n-2 [B] CnH2n+2 [C] CnH2n[D] CnH2n-6
  32. The boiling range of gasoline is...
    [A] 293-343 K [B] 343-473 K [C] 383-523 K [D] 473-523 K
  33. The hydrocarbons present in gasoline are from...
    [A] C1 to C4 [B] C5 to C12 [C] C12 to C15 [D] C15 to C20
  34. The boiling range of kerosene is...
    [A] 293-343 K [B] 343-473 K [C] 473-548 K [D] above 523 K
  35. The hydrocarbons present in kerosene are from...
    [A] C1 to C4 [B] C5 to C8 [C] C9 to C12 [D] C12 to C15
  36. The hydrocarbons present in diesel are from...
    [A] C5 to C8 [B] C9 to C12 [C] C12 to C15 [D] C15 to C18
  37. The boiling range of diesel oil is...
    [A] 533-613 K [B] 473-548 K [C] 393-473 K [D] 303-393 K
  38. Which of the following fractions is deposited on the inner side of the furnace during refining of petroleum?
    [A] Naphtha [B] Lubricating oil [C] Petroleum coke [D] Tar
  39. The octane number is the measure of _____ of gasoline.
    [A] calorific value [B] impurity [C] knocking property [D] burning pressure
  40. The octane number of n-heptane is...
    [A] 0 [B] 50 [C] 90 [D] 100
  41. The octane number of iso-octane is...
    [A] 0 [B] 50 [C] 90 [D] 100
  42. The efficiency of a sample of fuel is similar to that of a mixture containing 25% n-heptane and remaining iso-octane. Then its octane number is...
    [A] 75 [B] 25 [C] 125 [D] 1/25
  43. To increase the octane number of gasoline ______ is added to it.
    [A] kerosene [B] tetraethyl lead [C] lead oxide [D] petroleum coke
  44. During aromatization of n-hexane to benzene ______ is produced as an intermediate.
    [A] iso-hexane [B] iso-octane [C] cyclohexane [D] phenol
  45. Cracking of n-octane gives n-butane and ______.
    [A] iso-butane [B] but-1-ene [C] but-2-ene [D] iso-pentane
  46. To detect gas leakage from LPG cylinder, a foul smelling substance _____ is added to LPG.
    [A] tetraethyl lead [B] H2S [C] methyl mercaptan [D] methyl chloride
  47. Carbon belongs to the _____ group in periodic table.
    [A] 12th [B] 13th [C] 14th [D] 15th
  48. n-Butane and 2-methyl propane are...
    [A] allotropes [B] isotopes [C] isotones [D] isomers
  49. The bonds formed by sharing of electrons with two unpaired electrons with opposite spins are called...
    [A] α-bonds [B] β-bonds [C] σ-bonds [D] π-bonds
  50. In homologous series, each member of the series differs from its adjacent member by...
    [A] CH [B] CH2 [C] C2H [D] CH3
  51. The difference between molecular masses of any two successive members of a homologous series is...
    [A] 12 u [B]  14 u [C] 16 u [D] 20 u
  52. Which of the following are unsaturated hydrocarbons?
    [A] Alkanes [B] Alkenes [C] Alkynes [D] Both alkenes and alkynes
  53. Sodalime is a mixture of...
    [A] CaO and NaOH [B] Ca(OH)2 and NaOH [C] CaO and NaCl [D] Ca(OH)2 and NaCl
  54. In sodalime the proportion of CaO and NaOH is in the ratio...
    [A] 3:1 [B] 1:3 [C] 1:2 [D] 2:1
  55. Cracking of hexane gives _____ as one of the products.
    [A] Ethene [B] Ethane [C] Butene [D] Propene
  56. Dehydration of ethanol produces...
    [A] Ethane [B] Ethene [C] Ethyne [D] Methanol
  57. In addition reaction of ethyne with dihydrogen gas to obtain ethane _____ is used as catalyst.
    [A] V2O5 [B] KMnO4 [C] Raney nickel [D] HCl
  58. In oxyacetylene flame for welding of metals, _____ is used.
    [A] ethyne [B] ethene [C] ethane [D] ethyl chloride
  59. Which of the following types of coal is used to obtain coal gas?
    [A] Peat [B] Lignite [C] Bitumen [D] Anthracite
  60. Which brown coloured hard substance is left as residue during destructive distillation of mineral coal?
    [A] Coke [B] Coal tar [C] Charcoal [D] Asphalt
  61. Which of the following is used in water-proofing?
    [A] Asphalt [B] Diesel [C] Lubricating oil [D] Naphtha
  62. Which of the following is used for preparing electrodes (for batteries) and carbon tiles?
    [A] Petroleum coke [B] Tar [C] Naphtha [D] Asphalt
  63. How much gasoline is obtained generally from mineral oil?
    [A] 50% [B] 33% [C] 27% [D] 18%
  64. The chief constituent of LPG is...
    [A] methane [B] ethane [C] propane [D] butane
  65. The chief constituent of CNG is...
    [A] methane [B] ethane [C] propane [D] butane
  66. What is the general formula of alkane series?
    [A] CnH2n [B] CnH2n-2 [C] CnH2n+2 [D] CnHn
  67. What is the general formula of alkene series?
    [A] CnH2n [B] CnH2n-2 [C] CnH2n+2 [D] CnHn
  68. Which type of hybridization is found in a methane molecule?
    [A] SP1 [B] SP2 [C] SP3 [D] S2P
  69. What is the main component of gobar gas?
    [A] methane [B] ethane [C] propane [D] butane
  70. Which of the following is used in the production of water gas?
    [A] coke [B] coal tar [C] coal gas [D] ammonia
  71. How many covalent bonds are there between carbon atoms in the molecule of acetylene?
    [A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 3 [D] 4
  72. Which of the following is obtained by cooling the lubricating oil fraction obtained during refining of petroleum?
    [A] Naphtha [B] Coke [C] Wax [D] Tar
  73. What is the atomic number of carbon?
    [A] 4 [B] 6 [C] 8 [D] 14
  74. The shape of the methane molecule is...
    [A] hexagonal [B] tetrahedral [C] octahedral [D] rectangular
  75. Which of the following compounds possesses cyclic structure?
    [A] Butane [B] Benzene [C] n-Hexane [D] Iso-octane
  76. The mineral oil obtained from Pennsylvania of america is of the type containing...
    [A] paraffin hydrocarbons [B] naphthalene hydrocarbons
    [C] aromatic compounds    [D] asphalt
  77. The pink colour of potassium permanganate disappears when ____ is added to it.
    [A] methane [B] ethene [C] ethyne [D] ethene or ethyne
  78. In _____ reactions, straight chain hydrocarbons are converted to cyclic compounds.
    [A] isomerization [B] dehydrogenation [C] aromatization [D] cracking

  79. [A] [B] [C]  [D]

  80. [A] [B] [C]  [D]

ANSWERS


(1) D (2) C (3) C (4) B (5) A (6) C (7) D (8) A (9) C (10) A (11) C (12) B (13) B (14) C (15) B (16) A (17) C (18) C (19) A (20) B (21) D (22) B (23) D (24) C (25) C (26) A (27) D (28) A (29) B (30) C (31) D (32) B (33) B (34) C (35) D (36) D (37) A (38) C (39) C (40) A (41) D (42) A (43) B (44) C (45) B (46) C (47) C (48) D (49) C (50) B (51) B (52) D (53) A (54) B (55) A (56) B (57) C (58) A (59) B (60) A (61) A (62) A (63) D (64) D (65) A (66) C (67) A (68) C (69) A (70) A (71) C (72) C (73) B (74) B (75) B (76) A (77) D (78) C (79) (80)

Sunday, November 24, 2013

Chapter 11 : ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

Choose Appropriate Alternative


  1. The compound possessing (-CHO) functional group is called...
    [A] an amide [B]  an aldehyde [C]  a ketone [D] an alcohol
  2. Which functional group is possessed by carboxylic acid compounds?
    [A] >C=O [B] -COOH [C] -CHO [D] -OH
  3. With which group is suffix 'ol' attached in the nomenclature of organic compounds?
    [A] -CHO [B] >CO [C] -OH [D] -X
  4. Which functional group is there in methyl ethanoate?
    [A] Alcohol [B] Halide [C] Ketone [D] Ester
  5. Which of the following compounds is obtained from molasses by fermentation?
    [A] Chloromethane [B] Ethanol [C] Acetone [D] Methanal
  6. The solution of ethanol containing 5% water is called...
    [A] beer [B] varnish [C] rectified spirit [D] denatured alcohol
  7. What is the molecular formula of formalin?
    [A] HCOOH [B] HCOOCH3 [C] HCHO [D] HCOOC2H5
  8. Which substance is obtained by reduction of methanal?
    [A] Ethanol [B] CO2 and O2 [C] Methanol [D] Methanoic acid
  9. Which of the following is prepared by Fischer-Tropsch method?
    [A] Acetic acid [B] Acetaldehyde [C] Acetone [D] Ethanol
  10. Which of the following is a use of propanone?
    [A] As nail polish remover [B] As an antiseptic 
    [C] As an antibiotic     [D] As a preservative
  11. The reaction between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid in presence of concentrated sulphuric acid is called...
    [A] hydrolysis [B] β-elimination [C] saponification [D] esterification
  12. A compound with this functional group has minimum three carbon atoms.
    [A] -COOH [B] -CHO [C] >CO [D] -CONH2
  13. Which of the following is the monomer of polythene?
    [A] CH3-CH3 [B] CH2=CH2 [C] CH3-CH=CH2 [D] HC≡CH
  14. Which of the following is a use of acetic acid?
    [A] Preparation of vinegar [B] In white lead [C] As a reagent [D] All three
  15. Which of the following is used in conveyer belts?
    [A] Polythene [B] PVC [C] TEFLON [D] Neoprene
  16. What does 'P' stand for in IUPAC?
    [A] Pure [B] Physical [C] Primary [D] Proposed
  17. What is the IUPAC name of methyl acetate?
    [A] Methanal [B] Methyl ethanoate [C] Ethyl methanoate [D] Ethanoic acid
  18. What is the formula of methyl acetate (methyl ethanoate)?
    [A] CH3COOC2H5 [B] CH3COOCH3[C] C2H5COOCH3 [D] CH3COCH3
  19. The general formula of alcohol series is...
    [A] CnH2nOH [B] CnHnOH [C] CnH2n+1OH [D] CnH2n+2OH
  20. Which of the following is the true formula of an alcohol with 6 carbon atoms?
    [A] C6H11OH [B] C6H12OH [C] C6H13OH [D] C6H14OH
  21. Biological catalysts are called...
    [A] hormones [B] reagents [C] coagulants [D] enzymes
  22. ______ converts ______ of milk into ______.
    [A] Lactase, lactic acid, lactose [B] Lactose, lactic acid, lactase 
    [C] Lactic acid, lactose, lactase [D] Lactase, lactose, lactic acid
  23. Fermentation of grape juice to ethanol is aided by the enzymes present in...
    [A] grape juice [B] yeast [C] lactobacillus [D] atmosphere
  24. Sugar in molasses is converted to glucose (fructose) in presence of enzyme...
    [A] invertase [B] zymase [C] lactase [D] amylase
  25. Fermentation of glucose (fructose) to alcohol takes place in presence of...
    [A] invertase [B] zymase [C] lactase [D] amylase
  26. Absolute alcohol can be obtained by...
    [A] fermentation [B] evaporation [C] distillation [D] membrane technology
  27. Hydration of ethene gives...
    [A] ethane [B] ethanol [C] ethanoic acid [D] polythene
  28. The boiling point of pure ethanol is...
    [A] 311 K [B] 331 K [C] 351 K [D] 371 K
  29. When ethanol reacts with sodium metal, _____ gas is produced.
    [A] Dihydrogen [B] Carbon dioxide [C] Carbon monoxide [D] Dioxygen
  30. Oxidation of ethanol in presence of alkaline KMNO4 yields...
    [A] ethanal [B] ethanoic acid [C] propanol [D] ethyl ethanoate
  31. Which toxic substance is added to ethanol to prevent its consumption?
    [A] Methanol [B] Acetic acid [C] Methanal [D] Mercaptan
  32. Consumption of ethanol in excess causes a disease called ______ of liver.
    [A] fibrosis [B] lymphosys [C] cirrhosis [D] carcinoma
  33. In the liver of alcohol-addict the amount of _____ enzyme increases greatly.
    [A] P-540 [B] P-405 [C] P-504 [D] P-450
  34. In which of the following compounds is carbonyl group present?
    [A] Aldehydes [B] Ketones [C] Esters [D] Both aldehydes and ketones
  35. Oxidation of methanol in presence of catalyst______ gives methanal.
    [A] Ag2O [B] Pt [C] Pd [D] Ni
  36. The boiling point of methanal (formaldehyde) is...
    [A] 293 K [B] 351 K [C] 253 K [D] 311 K
  37. Which of the following can be used as a confirmatory test for aldehydes?
    [A] Silver-mirror test [B] Fehling's test [C] Benedict's test [D] All three
  38. Reduction of methanal to methanol is carried out in presence of the catalyst...
    [A] Pt [B] Pd [C] Ni [D] NaBH4
  39. Which of the following is a monomer of bakelite and melamine?
    [A] Isoprene [B] Methanal [C] Ethanal [D] Propanone
  40. Which catalyst is used in the preparation of acetone by Fischer-Tropsch process?
    [A] Ag2O [B] Pd [C] CoO [D] Alkaline KMNO4
  41. The boiling point of propanone is...
    [A] 239 K [B] 309 K [C] 351 K [D] 329 K
  42. NaBH4 (or LiAlH4) reduces propanone to...
    [A] propan-1-ol [B] propan-2-ol [C] propanal [D] propanoic acid
  43. Which of the following is the formula of propanone cyanohydrin?

  44. Which catalyst is used in the preparation of acetic acid from methanol?
    [A] CoO [B] Ag2O [C] V2O5 [D] I2-Rh
  45. The boiling point of ethanoic acid is...
    [A] 293 K [B] 329 K [C] 351 K [D] 391 K
  46. The monomer of natural rubber is...
    [A] chloroprene [B] isoprene [C] neoprene [D] 1-chloroethene
  47. Flooring tiles are prepared from...
    [A] polythene [B] TEFLON [C] polyvinyl chloride [D] polybutadiene
  48. 2-chloro-1,3-diene is the monomer of...
    [A] PVC [B] TEFLON [C] neoprene [D] natural rubber
  49. The elastic character of natural rubber is maintained between...
    [A] 283-333 K [B] 293-353 K [C] 273-353 K [D] 313-343 K
  50. To increase the rate of reaction during vulcanization of rubber, ______ is added.
    [A] lead [B] sulphur [C] ZnO [D] PbCO3
  51. During saponification reaction, what is obtained as by-product?
    [A] Glycerol [B] Ethanol [C] Sodium Ethoxide [D] Sodium carbonate
  52. Which of the following is not a functional group containing oxygen?
    [A] Alcohol [B] Aldehyde [C] Ketone [D] Halide
  53. The fermentation process to manufacture ethanol is...
    [A] an aerobic process       [B] an anaerobic process
    [C] a polymerization process [D] a catalytic aerobic process
  54. The IUPAC name of acetic acid is...
    [A] methanoic acid [B] ethanoic acid [C] propanoic acid [D] vinegar
  55. Ethylethanoate is...
    [A] an alcohol [B] an acid [C] an ester [D] a ketone
  56. In aldehydes, the carbonyl group is attached to...
    [A] one hydrogen and one oxygen      [B] two alkyl groups 
    [C] one hydrogen and one alkyl group [D] one oxygen and one alkyl group
  57. What is vinegar?
    [A] Methanol [B] Ethanol [C] Formic acid [D] Acetic acid
  58. An organic acid + an alcohol ----> ______ + water
    [A] An aldehyde [B] a ketone [C] an ester [D] a carboxylic acid
  59. The enzyme which converts milk into curd is...
    [A] lactase [B] invertase [C] zymase [D] cellulase
  60. Which of the following is not an oxidizing agent?
    [A] NaBH4 [B] KMNO4 [C] Cr2O3 [D] Fehling's solution
  61. Which of the following is a condensation polymer?
    [A] PVC [B] Nylon [C] Natural rubber [D] TEFLON
  62. Which gas is produced during fermentation?
    [A] CO [B] CO2 [C] Cl2 [D] O2
  63. Which of the following compounds has more reactivity?
    [A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Ethene [D] Ethyne
  64. Which functional group do carboxylic acid compounds have?
    [A] >C=O [B] -COOH [C] -CHO [D] -OH
  65. What is the name of the aldehyde corresponding to butane?
    [A] Butyric acid [B] Butanone [C] Butanal [D] Butanol
  66. The names of the compounds with functional group _____ end with suffix 'ol'.
    [A] -CHO [B] >C=O [C] -NH2 [D] -OH
  67. What is the molecular formula of acetone?
    [A] CH3OH [B] CH3COCH3 [C] CH3CH2CHO [D] CH3CH2COOH
  68. What is the molecular formula of formalin?
    [A] HCOOH [B] HCOOCH3 [C] HCHO [D] HCOOC2H5
  69. Which acid is present in curd?
    [A] Lactic acid [B] Formic acid [C] Acetic acid [D] Citric acid
  70. A person loses his eye-sight if he consumes ethanol containing toxic substance______.
    [A] Formalin [B] Vinegar [C] Propanol [D] Methanol
  71. What is obtained by reduction of methanal?
    [A] Methanol [B] Ethanol [C] Ethanoic acid [D] Ethene
  72. Which of the following is used to prepare milk bags?
    [A] Polythene [B] PVC [C] Nylon [D] TEFLON
  73. Which functional group is attached with hydrocarbon part in soap?
    [A] -SO3K [B] SO3Na [C] -COONa [D] -COOH
  74. Which of the following is used to prepare water pipes?
    [A] Polythene [B] PVC [C] Nylon [D] TEFLON
  75. Which chemical is used to preserve the residues of dead animals?
    [A] Methanol [B] Ethanol [C] Formalin [D] Acetic acid
  76. Water gas is a mixture of ...
    [A] CO and N2 [B] CO and O2 [C] CO2 and H2 [D] CO and H2
  77. Which functional group is attached with hydrocarbon part in detergent?
    [A] -SO3K [B] SO3Na [C] -COONa [D] -COOH
  78. Which of the following ions is present in hard water?
    [A] Cu2+ [B] Pb2+ [C] Mg2+ [D] Al3+ 
  79. Which type of polymer is polystyrene?
    [A] Addition [B] Condensation [C] Bipolymer [D] Cyclic polymer
  80. Which of the following is used as a bio-polymer for taking stitches after surgery?
    [A] Dextran [B] Nylon [C] Polyester [D] Acrylic fibre
  81. Polyamide is also known as...
    [A] Polyester [B] Nylon [C] Acrylic fibre [D] TEFLON
  82. Who invented vulcanized rubber?
    [A] Fischer-Tropsch [B] Maxwell [C] Haber [D] Charles Goodyear
  83. _____ is obtained as a gas at room temperature.
    [A] Ethanol [B] Ethanoic acid [C] Methanal [D] Propanone
  84. How much sulphur is added in rubber to obtain vulcanised rubber for making tyres?
    [A] 5% [B] 10% [C] 15% [D] 20%

  85. [A][B][C][D]


ANSWERS


(1) B (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) B (6) C (7) C (8) C (9) C (10) A (11) D (12) C (13) B (14) D (15) D (16) A (17) B (18) B (19) C (20) C (21) D (22) D (23) B (24) A (25) B (26) D (27) B (28) C (29) A (30) B (31) A (32) C (33) D (34) D (35) A (36) C (37) D (38) B (39) B (40) C (41) D (42) B (43) A (44) D (45) D (46) B (47) C (48) C (49) A (50) C (51) A (52) D (53) B (54) B (55) C (56) C (57) D (58) C (59) A (60) A (61) B (62) B (63) D (64) B (65) C (66) D (67) B (68) C (69) A (70) D (71) A (72) A (73) C (74) B (75) C (76) D (77) B (78) C (79) A (80) A (81) B (82) D (83) C (84) A (85) (86) (87) (88) (89) (90)

Monday, November 18, 2013

Chapter 12 : NUTRITION AND RESPIRATION

Choose Appropriate Alternative


  1. Which of the following types of organism has the longest small intestine?
    [A] Carnivores [B] Omnivores [C] Herbivores [D] Autotrophs
  2. The process of obtaining food by amoeba is known as...
    [A] Dialysis [B] Cytokinesis [C] Phagocytosis [D] Amoebiosis
  3. Which organism possesses parasitic mode of nutrition?
    [A] Penicillium [B] Plasmodium [C] Paramoecium [D] Euglena
  4. Which one of the following organisms has saprophytic mode of nutrition?
    [A] Mushroom [B] Malarial parasite [C] Leech [D] Lice
  5. The length of small intestine in an adult human being is about...
    [A] 4.5 m [B] 1.5 m [C] 3.5 m [D] 6.5 m
  6. Where does the process of digestion of food start in human being?
    [A] Stomach [B] Food canal [C] Mouth [D] Small intestine
  7. In which organ is the process of digestion in humans completed?
    [A] Oesophagus [B] Small intestine [C] Stomach [D] Large intestine
  8. By which of the following is bile secreted in human digestive system?
    [A] Pancreas [B] Liver [C] Kidney [D] Stomach
  9. The autotrophic nutrition requires...
    [A] carbon dioxide and water [B] chlorophyll [C] sunlight [D] all of the above
  10. In human digestive system, which organs secrete enzyme pepsin and trypsin respectively?
    [A] Pancreas and liver        [B] Stomach and salivary gland 
    [C] Pancreas and gall bladder [D] Stomach and pancreas
  11. Which of the following organisms can live without oxygen?
    [A] Amoeba [B] Sheep [C] Yeast [D] Leech
  12. During respiration, the exchange of gases takes place in...
    [A] bronchi [B] alveoli [C] bronchioles [D] trachea
  13. In which of the following organisms, the gaseous exchange during respiration does not take place through cell membrane or skin?
    [A] Ray fish [B] Leech [C] Earthworm [D] Amoeba
  14. Autotrophic organisms obtain nutrition by the process of...
    [A] photosynthesis [B] nitrification [C] respiration [D] absorption
  15. During cellular respiration...
    [A] food is digested [B] food is absorbed [C] energy is released [D] energy is absorbed
  16. Autotrophic means...
    [A] self-control [B] self-nutrition [C] self-protection [D] nonliving
  17. What is used to confirm the presence of starch?
    [A] Alcohol [B] Sulphuric acid [C] Iodine [D] Chlorophyll
  18. The opening and closing of stomata are controlled by...
    [A] chlorophyll [B] guard cells [C] sunlight [D] leaf
  19. What is used for removing chlorophyll from a green leaf?
    [A] Alcohol [B] Sulphuric acid [C] Sunlight [D] Iodine
  20. Organisms obtaining nutrition from dead and decaying matter are called...
    [A] phagocytes [B] parasites [C] autotrophs [D] saprophytes
  21. ______ obtains parasitic nutrition.
    [A] Locust [B] Cuscuta [C] Mushroom [D] Earthworm
  22. The mode of nutrition in higher animals is...
    [A] parasitic [B] saprophytic [C] autotrophic [D] holozoic
  23. Which of the following is an omnivore?
    [A] Goat [B] Tiger [C] Rat [D] Lion
  24. The mode of nutrition in amoeba is...
    [A] parasitic [B] saprophytic [C] holozoic [D] autotrophic
  25. Which enzyme is secreted by salivary glands?
    [A] Amylase [B] Pepsin [C] Invertase [D] Trypsin
  26. What does enzyme amylase do?
    [A] Converts glucose to starch [B] Converts starch to maltose
    [C] Converts starch to protein [D] Converts proteins to amino acids
  27. Which of the following is not a component of gastric juice?
    [A] Hydrochloric acid [B] Pepsinogen  [C] Nitric acid [D] Mucus
  28. Enzyme pepsin digests...
    [A] starch [B] cellulose [C] lipids [D] proteins
  29. The small intestine receives secretions from...
    [A] liver [B] pancreas [C] both liver and pancreas [D] gall bladder
  30. Bile secreted by liver is...
    [A] alkaline [B] acidic [C] neutral [D] both alkaline and acidic
  31. Pancreatic juice contains...
    [A] amylase [B] trypsin [C] lipase [D] all three
  32. Which enzyme helps in digestion of fat?
    [A] Amylase [B] Trypsin [C] Lipase [D] Both amylase and trypsin
  33. In holozoic nutrition ______ is the last step involved.
    [A] digestion [B] absorption [C] assimilation [D] ingestion
  34. The process of releasing energy from food is called...
    [A] digestion [B] nutrition [C] assimilation [D] respiration
  35. The energy released during respiration is stored in...
    [A] ATP [B] mitochondria [C] lungs [D] cell nucleus
  36. During anaerobic respiration, glucose molecules are broken down to _____ in animal muscle cells.
    [A] ethanol [B] lactic acid [C] ethylene [D] glycogen
  37. In plants, the end products of anaerobic respiration are CO2 and...
    [A] ethanol [B] lactic acid [C] water [D] starch
  38. Aerobic respiration takes place in...
    [A] cytoplasm [B] mitochondria [C] both cytoplasm and mitochondria [D] lungs
  39. Anaerobic respiration takes place in...
    [A] cytoplasm [B] mitochondria [C] both cytoplasm and mitochondria [D] lungs
  40. Which of the following parts of plants perform respiration?
    [A] Roots [B] Stem [C] Leaves [D] All three
  41. In woody plants, respiratory gaseous exchange in stems takes place through...
    [A] stomata [B] lenticels [C] both stomata and lenticels [D] specific tissues
  42. Respiration in amoeba occurs through...
    [A] gills [B] pseudopodia [C] cell membrane [D] vacuole
  43. Earthworm respires through...
    [A] trachea [B] lungs [C] skin [D] cilia
  44. Which of the following organisms does not use gills for respiration?
    [A] Fish [B] Euglena [C] Prawn [D] Crab
  45. ______ use gills for respiration.
    [A] Paramoecium [B] Earthworm [C] Euglena [D] Sepia
  46. ______ prevents food from entering trachea.
    [A] Glottis [B] Epiglottis [C] Mucus [D] Pharynx
  47. ______ plays an important role in breathing.
    [A] Diaphragm [B] Alveoli [C] Trachea [D] Glottis
  48. Which process is involved in respiratory gaseous exchange?
    [A] Swallowing [B] Diffusion [C] Oxidation [D] Glycolysis
  49. The living organisms obtain nutrition from...
    [A] energy [B] food [C] environment [D] sunlight
  50. During which process energy is released from the absorbed food?
    [A] Respiration [B] Nutrition [C] Photosynthesis [D] Chemosynthesis
  51. Which of the following processes is responsible for the change in the size of the organism?
    [A] Reproduction [B] Excretion [C] Movement [D] Growth
  52. The organisms which can synthesize their own food from natural inorganic substances are called...
    [A] autotrophs [B] heterotrophs [C] saprophytes [D] herbivores
  53. Autotrophic organisms possess ______ pigment.
    [A] haemoglobin [B] melanin [C] chlorophyll [D] phenolphthalin
  54. Which inorganic substances are used by autotrophs to synthesize food in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll?
    [A] CO2 and O2 [B] CO2 and NO2[C] CO2 and H2O [D] CO2 and H2
  55. Apart from green plants photosynthesis is also seen in...
    [A] euglena [B] volvox [C] mushroom [D] both euglena and volvox
  56. We derive energy from the food which is stored in the body as...
    [A] starch [B] glucose [C] glycogen [D] lactose
  57. In which of the following parts of the plants is photosynthesis seen to occur mostly?
    [A] Leaves [B] Roots [C] Stem [D] Flowers
  58. The products of photosynthesis are...
    [A] CO2 and O2[B] CO2 and H2O [C] Glucose and O2 [D] CO2 and glucose
  59. What type of energy conversion takes place during photosynthesis?
    [A] Chemical energy to light energy [B] Light energy to chemical energy
    [C] Light energy to heat energy    [D] Light energy to atomic energy
  60. During photosynthesis carbohydrates are formed by _______ of CO2.
    [A] oxidation [B] reduction [C] carboxylation [D] hydrolysis
  61. The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by...
    [A] epidermal cells [B] epithelial cells [C] lenticels [D] guard cells
  62. The mode of nutrition in which one organism obtains nutrition from other organisms is known as...
    [A] autotrophic nutrition [B] heterothrophic nutrition 
    [C] saprophytic nutrition [D] symbiosis
  63. When one living organism depends on another living organism for nutrition, the mode of nutrition is called...
    [A] parasitic nutrition [B] saprophytic nutrition [C] symbiosis [D] holozoic nutrition
  64. Which of the following is the correct order for process of nutrition?
    [A] Digestion, absorption, assimilation, egestion 
    [B] Absorption, assimilation, egestion, ingestion 
    [C] Ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation
    [D] Digestion, absorption, ingestion, egestion
  65. Amoeba uses ______ for ingestion of food.
    [A] tantacles [B] pseudopodia [C] cilia [D] oral opening
  66. In amoeba, the absorption of digested food takes place in...
    [A] cytoplasm [B] cell membrane [C] food vacuole [D] nucleus
  67. Which of the following is the correct order of human digestive organs?
    [A] Mouth, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine 
    [B] Stomach, large intestine, small intestine, oesophagus, mouth
    [C] Mouth, stomach, oesophagus, large intestine, small intestine
    [D] Mouth, small intestine, stomach, large intestine, oesophagus
  68. In which organ does the first digestion of starch occur in humans?
    [A] Stomach [B] Small intestine [C] Large intestine [D] Mouth
  69. Approximately for how much time does food remain in stomach?
    [A] 30 minutes [B] 3 hours [C] 6 hours [D] 8 hours
  70. What is the nature of gastric juice?
    [A] Acidic [B] Alkaline [C] Neutral [D] Basic
  71. In humans, the process of digestion of food ends in...
    [A] stomach [B] small intestine [C] large intestine [D] liver
  72. Fats are broken into small globules by...
    [A] bile salt [B] hormones [C] pepsin [D] amylase
  73. Which of the following converts starch to glucose, proteins to amino acids and fats to glycerol?
    [A] Gastric juice [B] Bile salts [C] Intestinal juice [D] Pepsinogen
  74. Where are the nutrients of the digested food absorbed?
    [A] In small intestine [B] In stomach [C] In large intestine [D] In oesophagus
  75. Which type of reaction is respiration?
    [A] Oxidation [B] Reduction [C] Hydrolysis [D] Pyrolysis
  76. During glycolysis, glucose is converted to...
    [A] starch [B] cellulose [C] pyruvic acid [D] CO2
  77. How many ATP molecules are produced after complete oxidation of a glucose molecule?
    [A] 2 [B] 8 [C] 18 [D] 38
  78. How many ATP molecules are produced from one molecule of glucose during anaerobic respiration?
    [A] 2 [B] 8 [C] 18 [D] 38
  79. Which of the following functions is carried out by stomata?
    [A] Photosynthesis [B] Respiration [C] Exchange of gases [D] Absorption of water
  80. The first and the last organs of human respiratory system are...
    [A] Nostrils, lungs [B] Nasal cavity, lungs [C] Buccal cavity, trachea [D] Pharynx, trachea
  81. Which of the following shows anaerobic phase of aerobic respiration?
    [A] Gluconeogenesis [B] Respiration [C] Glycolysis [D] Both respiration and glycolysis

  82. [A][B][C][D]


ANSWERS


(1) C (2) C (3) B (4) A (5) D (6) C (7) B (8) B (9) D (10) D (11) C (12) B (13) A (14) A (15) C (16) B (17) C (18) B (19) A (20) D (21) B (22) D (23) C (24) C (25) A (26) B (27) C (28) D (29) C (30) A (31) D (32) C (33) C (34) D (35) A (36) B (37) A (38) C (39) A (40) D (41) B (42) C (43) C (44) B (45) D (46) B (47) A (48) B (49) B (50) A (51) D (52) A (53) C (54) C (55) D (56) C (57) A (58) C (59) B (60) B (61) D (62) B (63) A (64) C (65) B (66) A (67) A (68) D (69) B (70) A (71) C (72) A (73) C (74) A (75) A (76) C (77) D (78) A (79) C (80) A (81) C (82) (83) (84) (85) (86) (87) (88) (89) (90)