To the visitors of blog

I have created this blog for students of class 10 of Gujarat secondary Education Board (GSEB). Questions are based on the text book of Gujarat Board. Hope it will help other students, too. For descriptive Question-Answer you can visit my another blog scienceandtechnology-manojsir.blogspot.com

Wednesday, November 27, 2013

Chapter 10 : MINERAL COAL AND MINERAL OIL

Choose Appropriate Alternative


  1. Which is the primary state in transformation of coal?
    [A] Lignite [B] Bitumen [C] Anthracite [D] Peat
  2. What is the matured form of coal?
    [A] Lignite [B] Bitumen [C] Anthracite [D] Peat
  3. Which type of coal does not produce smoke or odour when burnt?
    [A] Lignite [B] Bitumen [C] Anthracite [D] Peat
  4. Which of the following is not obtained as a component during destructive distillation of coal?
    [A] Coal gas [B] Methane [C] Coal tar [D] Coke
  5. Which of the following is used in the production of water gas?
    [A] Coke [B] Coal tar [C] Coal gas [D] Ammonia
  6. Water gas is a mixture of...
    [A] carbon dioxide and hydrogen  [B] carbon and hydrogen 
    [C] carbon monoxide and hydrogen [D] ammonia and hydrogen
  7. Which gas is filled at high pressure in cylinders of house-hold cooking gas?
    [A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Propane [D] Butane
  8. Which component obtained during refining of petroleum is used as a solvent in petrochemicals?
    [A] Naphtha [B] Kerosene [C] Tar [D] Petroleum coke
  9. Which of the following is used in petromax to obtain light?
    [A] Petrol [B] Diesel [C] Kerosene [D] Butane
  10. Which is the chief hydrocarbon in natural gas?
    [A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Propane [D] Butane
  11. What is the molecular formula of ethene?
    [A] C2H6 [B] C2H2 [C] C2H4 [D] CH4
  12. What is the general formula of alkyne series?
    [A] CnH2n [B] CnH2n-2 [C] CnH2n+2 [D] CnHn
  13. What is the commercial name of ethyne?
    [A] Acrylic acid [B] Acetylene [C] Ethane [D] Oxyacetylene
  14. C3H8 is the molecular formula of...
    [A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Propane [D] Butane
  15. What is the angle between any two bonds in methane molecule?
    [A] 105° 54' [B] 109° 28' [C] 119° 28' [D] 190° 28'
  16. Which of the following is called a fossil fuel?
    [A] Mineral coal [B] Wood [C] Cowdung cake [D] All the given
  17. From where is mineral coal obtained in Gujarat?
    [A] Ankleshwar [B] Khambhat [C] Thangadh [D] Kalol
  18. What is used as fuel in jet-planes?
    [A] Gasoline [B] Diesel oil [C] Kerosene [D] All the given
  19. Peat coal contains about _____ % carbon.
    [A] 28 [B] 30 [C] 78 [D] 86
  20. The calorific value of lignite is about _____ kJ/g.
    [A] 22 [B] 27 [C] 30 [D] 40
  21. How much carbon does bituminous coal contain?
    [A] 28-30% [B] 30-45% [C] 56-68% [D] 78-86%
  22. What is the heat energy of bituminous coal?
    [A] 27 kJ/g [B] 30 kJ/g [C] 33 kJ/g [D] 35 kJ/g
  23. What is the carbon content of anthracite coal?
    [A] 28-30% [B] 30-49% [C] 78-86% [D] 94-98%
  24. What is the calorific value of anthracite coal?
    [A] 27 kJ/g [B] 30 kJ/g [C] 33 kJ/g [D] 35 kJ/g
  25. Coke contains about ______ % carbon.
    [A] 50 [B] 70 [C] 80 [D] 96
  26. The chief component of coal gas is...
    [A] CO [B] CO2 [C] H2 [D] CH4
  27. The first petroleum well was dug at...
    [A] California [B] Alaska [C] Kuwait [D] Titusville
  28. The first petroleum well was dug at _____ in India in 1867.
    [A] Makum [B] Ranchi [C] Ankleshwar [D] Allepy
  29. The general formula of paraffin (aliphatic) hydrocarbons is...
    [A] CnH2n-2 [B] CnH2n+2 [C] CnH2n[D] CnHn
  30. The general formula of naphthalene hydrocarbons is...
    [A] CnH2n-2 [B] CnH2n+2 [C] CnH2n[D] CnH2n-6
  31. >The general formula of aromatic hydrocarbons is...
    [A] CnH2n-2 [B] CnH2n+2 [C] CnH2n[D] CnH2n-6
  32. The boiling range of gasoline is...
    [A] 293-343 K [B] 343-473 K [C] 383-523 K [D] 473-523 K
  33. The hydrocarbons present in gasoline are from...
    [A] C1 to C4 [B] C5 to C12 [C] C12 to C15 [D] C15 to C20
  34. The boiling range of kerosene is...
    [A] 293-343 K [B] 343-473 K [C] 473-548 K [D] above 523 K
  35. The hydrocarbons present in kerosene are from...
    [A] C1 to C4 [B] C5 to C8 [C] C9 to C12 [D] C12 to C15
  36. The hydrocarbons present in diesel are from...
    [A] C5 to C8 [B] C9 to C12 [C] C12 to C15 [D] C15 to C18
  37. The boiling range of diesel oil is...
    [A] 533-613 K [B] 473-548 K [C] 393-473 K [D] 303-393 K
  38. Which of the following fractions is deposited on the inner side of the furnace during refining of petroleum?
    [A] Naphtha [B] Lubricating oil [C] Petroleum coke [D] Tar
  39. The octane number is the measure of _____ of gasoline.
    [A] calorific value [B] impurity [C] knocking property [D] burning pressure
  40. The octane number of n-heptane is...
    [A] 0 [B] 50 [C] 90 [D] 100
  41. The octane number of iso-octane is...
    [A] 0 [B] 50 [C] 90 [D] 100
  42. The efficiency of a sample of fuel is similar to that of a mixture containing 25% n-heptane and remaining iso-octane. Then its octane number is...
    [A] 75 [B] 25 [C] 125 [D] 1/25
  43. To increase the octane number of gasoline ______ is added to it.
    [A] kerosene [B] tetraethyl lead [C] lead oxide [D] petroleum coke
  44. During aromatization of n-hexane to benzene ______ is produced as an intermediate.
    [A] iso-hexane [B] iso-octane [C] cyclohexane [D] phenol
  45. Cracking of n-octane gives n-butane and ______.
    [A] iso-butane [B] but-1-ene [C] but-2-ene [D] iso-pentane
  46. To detect gas leakage from LPG cylinder, a foul smelling substance _____ is added to LPG.
    [A] tetraethyl lead [B] H2S [C] methyl mercaptan [D] methyl chloride
  47. Carbon belongs to the _____ group in periodic table.
    [A] 12th [B] 13th [C] 14th [D] 15th
  48. n-Butane and 2-methyl propane are...
    [A] allotropes [B] isotopes [C] isotones [D] isomers
  49. The bonds formed by sharing of electrons with two unpaired electrons with opposite spins are called...
    [A] α-bonds [B] β-bonds [C] σ-bonds [D] π-bonds
  50. In homologous series, each member of the series differs from its adjacent member by...
    [A] CH [B] CH2 [C] C2H [D] CH3
  51. The difference between molecular masses of any two successive members of a homologous series is...
    [A] 12 u [B]  14 u [C] 16 u [D] 20 u
  52. Which of the following are unsaturated hydrocarbons?
    [A] Alkanes [B] Alkenes [C] Alkynes [D] Both alkenes and alkynes
  53. Sodalime is a mixture of...
    [A] CaO and NaOH [B] Ca(OH)2 and NaOH [C] CaO and NaCl [D] Ca(OH)2 and NaCl
  54. In sodalime the proportion of CaO and NaOH is in the ratio...
    [A] 3:1 [B] 1:3 [C] 1:2 [D] 2:1
  55. Cracking of hexane gives _____ as one of the products.
    [A] Ethene [B] Ethane [C] Butene [D] Propene
  56. Dehydration of ethanol produces...
    [A] Ethane [B] Ethene [C] Ethyne [D] Methanol
  57. In addition reaction of ethyne with dihydrogen gas to obtain ethane _____ is used as catalyst.
    [A] V2O5 [B] KMnO4 [C] Raney nickel [D] HCl
  58. In oxyacetylene flame for welding of metals, _____ is used.
    [A] ethyne [B] ethene [C] ethane [D] ethyl chloride
  59. Which of the following types of coal is used to obtain coal gas?
    [A] Peat [B] Lignite [C] Bitumen [D] Anthracite
  60. Which brown coloured hard substance is left as residue during destructive distillation of mineral coal?
    [A] Coke [B] Coal tar [C] Charcoal [D] Asphalt
  61. Which of the following is used in water-proofing?
    [A] Asphalt [B] Diesel [C] Lubricating oil [D] Naphtha
  62. Which of the following is used for preparing electrodes (for batteries) and carbon tiles?
    [A] Petroleum coke [B] Tar [C] Naphtha [D] Asphalt
  63. How much gasoline is obtained generally from mineral oil?
    [A] 50% [B] 33% [C] 27% [D] 18%
  64. The chief constituent of LPG is...
    [A] methane [B] ethane [C] propane [D] butane
  65. The chief constituent of CNG is...
    [A] methane [B] ethane [C] propane [D] butane
  66. What is the general formula of alkane series?
    [A] CnH2n [B] CnH2n-2 [C] CnH2n+2 [D] CnHn
  67. What is the general formula of alkene series?
    [A] CnH2n [B] CnH2n-2 [C] CnH2n+2 [D] CnHn
  68. Which type of hybridization is found in a methane molecule?
    [A] SP1 [B] SP2 [C] SP3 [D] S2P
  69. What is the main component of gobar gas?
    [A] methane [B] ethane [C] propane [D] butane
  70. Which of the following is used in the production of water gas?
    [A] coke [B] coal tar [C] coal gas [D] ammonia
  71. How many covalent bonds are there between carbon atoms in the molecule of acetylene?
    [A] 1 [B] 2 [C] 3 [D] 4
  72. Which of the following is obtained by cooling the lubricating oil fraction obtained during refining of petroleum?
    [A] Naphtha [B] Coke [C] Wax [D] Tar
  73. What is the atomic number of carbon?
    [A] 4 [B] 6 [C] 8 [D] 14
  74. The shape of the methane molecule is...
    [A] hexagonal [B] tetrahedral [C] octahedral [D] rectangular
  75. Which of the following compounds possesses cyclic structure?
    [A] Butane [B] Benzene [C] n-Hexane [D] Iso-octane
  76. The mineral oil obtained from Pennsylvania of america is of the type containing...
    [A] paraffin hydrocarbons [B] naphthalene hydrocarbons
    [C] aromatic compounds    [D] asphalt
  77. The pink colour of potassium permanganate disappears when ____ is added to it.
    [A] methane [B] ethene [C] ethyne [D] ethene or ethyne
  78. In _____ reactions, straight chain hydrocarbons are converted to cyclic compounds.
    [A] isomerization [B] dehydrogenation [C] aromatization [D] cracking

  79. [A] [B] [C]  [D]

  80. [A] [B] [C]  [D]

ANSWERS


(1) D (2) C (3) C (4) B (5) A (6) C (7) D (8) A (9) C (10) A (11) C (12) B (13) B (14) C (15) B (16) A (17) C (18) C (19) A (20) B (21) D (22) B (23) D (24) C (25) C (26) A (27) D (28) A (29) B (30) C (31) D (32) B (33) B (34) C (35) D (36) D (37) A (38) C (39) C (40) A (41) D (42) A (43) B (44) C (45) B (46) C (47) C (48) D (49) C (50) B (51) B (52) D (53) A (54) B (55) A (56) B (57) C (58) A (59) B (60) A (61) A (62) A (63) D (64) D (65) A (66) C (67) A (68) C (69) A (70) A (71) C (72) C (73) B (74) B (75) B (76) A (77) D (78) C (79) (80)

Sunday, November 24, 2013

Chapter 11 : ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

Choose Appropriate Alternative


  1. The compound possessing (-CHO) functional group is called...
    [A] an amide [B]  an aldehyde [C]  a ketone [D] an alcohol
  2. Which functional group is possessed by carboxylic acid compounds?
    [A] >C=O [B] -COOH [C] -CHO [D] -OH
  3. With which group is suffix 'ol' attached in the nomenclature of organic compounds?
    [A] -CHO [B] >CO [C] -OH [D] -X
  4. Which functional group is there in methyl ethanoate?
    [A] Alcohol [B] Halide [C] Ketone [D] Ester
  5. Which of the following compounds is obtained from molasses by fermentation?
    [A] Chloromethane [B] Ethanol [C] Acetone [D] Methanal
  6. The solution of ethanol containing 5% water is called...
    [A] beer [B] varnish [C] rectified spirit [D] denatured alcohol
  7. What is the molecular formula of formalin?
    [A] HCOOH [B] HCOOCH3 [C] HCHO [D] HCOOC2H5
  8. Which substance is obtained by reduction of methanal?
    [A] Ethanol [B] CO2 and O2 [C] Methanol [D] Methanoic acid
  9. Which of the following is prepared by Fischer-Tropsch method?
    [A] Acetic acid [B] Acetaldehyde [C] Acetone [D] Ethanol
  10. Which of the following is a use of propanone?
    [A] As nail polish remover [B] As an antiseptic 
    [C] As an antibiotic     [D] As a preservative
  11. The reaction between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid in presence of concentrated sulphuric acid is called...
    [A] hydrolysis [B] β-elimination [C] saponification [D] esterification
  12. A compound with this functional group has minimum three carbon atoms.
    [A] -COOH [B] -CHO [C] >CO [D] -CONH2
  13. Which of the following is the monomer of polythene?
    [A] CH3-CH3 [B] CH2=CH2 [C] CH3-CH=CH2 [D] HC≡CH
  14. Which of the following is a use of acetic acid?
    [A] Preparation of vinegar [B] In white lead [C] As a reagent [D] All three
  15. Which of the following is used in conveyer belts?
    [A] Polythene [B] PVC [C] TEFLON [D] Neoprene
  16. What does 'P' stand for in IUPAC?
    [A] Pure [B] Physical [C] Primary [D] Proposed
  17. What is the IUPAC name of methyl acetate?
    [A] Methanal [B] Methyl ethanoate [C] Ethyl methanoate [D] Ethanoic acid
  18. What is the formula of methyl acetate (methyl ethanoate)?
    [A] CH3COOC2H5 [B] CH3COOCH3[C] C2H5COOCH3 [D] CH3COCH3
  19. The general formula of alcohol series is...
    [A] CnH2nOH [B] CnHnOH [C] CnH2n+1OH [D] CnH2n+2OH
  20. Which of the following is the true formula of an alcohol with 6 carbon atoms?
    [A] C6H11OH [B] C6H12OH [C] C6H13OH [D] C6H14OH
  21. Biological catalysts are called...
    [A] hormones [B] reagents [C] coagulants [D] enzymes
  22. ______ converts ______ of milk into ______.
    [A] Lactase, lactic acid, lactose [B] Lactose, lactic acid, lactase 
    [C] Lactic acid, lactose, lactase [D] Lactase, lactose, lactic acid
  23. Fermentation of grape juice to ethanol is aided by the enzymes present in...
    [A] grape juice [B] yeast [C] lactobacillus [D] atmosphere
  24. Sugar in molasses is converted to glucose (fructose) in presence of enzyme...
    [A] invertase [B] zymase [C] lactase [D] amylase
  25. Fermentation of glucose (fructose) to alcohol takes place in presence of...
    [A] invertase [B] zymase [C] lactase [D] amylase
  26. Absolute alcohol can be obtained by...
    [A] fermentation [B] evaporation [C] distillation [D] membrane technology
  27. Hydration of ethene gives...
    [A] ethane [B] ethanol [C] ethanoic acid [D] polythene
  28. The boiling point of pure ethanol is...
    [A] 311 K [B] 331 K [C] 351 K [D] 371 K
  29. When ethanol reacts with sodium metal, _____ gas is produced.
    [A] Dihydrogen [B] Carbon dioxide [C] Carbon monoxide [D] Dioxygen
  30. Oxidation of ethanol in presence of alkaline KMNO4 yields...
    [A] ethanal [B] ethanoic acid [C] propanol [D] ethyl ethanoate
  31. Which toxic substance is added to ethanol to prevent its consumption?
    [A] Methanol [B] Acetic acid [C] Methanal [D] Mercaptan
  32. Consumption of ethanol in excess causes a disease called ______ of liver.
    [A] fibrosis [B] lymphosys [C] cirrhosis [D] carcinoma
  33. In the liver of alcohol-addict the amount of _____ enzyme increases greatly.
    [A] P-540 [B] P-405 [C] P-504 [D] P-450
  34. In which of the following compounds is carbonyl group present?
    [A] Aldehydes [B] Ketones [C] Esters [D] Both aldehydes and ketones
  35. Oxidation of methanol in presence of catalyst______ gives methanal.
    [A] Ag2O [B] Pt [C] Pd [D] Ni
  36. The boiling point of methanal (formaldehyde) is...
    [A] 293 K [B] 351 K [C] 253 K [D] 311 K
  37. Which of the following can be used as a confirmatory test for aldehydes?
    [A] Silver-mirror test [B] Fehling's test [C] Benedict's test [D] All three
  38. Reduction of methanal to methanol is carried out in presence of the catalyst...
    [A] Pt [B] Pd [C] Ni [D] NaBH4
  39. Which of the following is a monomer of bakelite and melamine?
    [A] Isoprene [B] Methanal [C] Ethanal [D] Propanone
  40. Which catalyst is used in the preparation of acetone by Fischer-Tropsch process?
    [A] Ag2O [B] Pd [C] CoO [D] Alkaline KMNO4
  41. The boiling point of propanone is...
    [A] 239 K [B] 309 K [C] 351 K [D] 329 K
  42. NaBH4 (or LiAlH4) reduces propanone to...
    [A] propan-1-ol [B] propan-2-ol [C] propanal [D] propanoic acid
  43. Which of the following is the formula of propanone cyanohydrin?

  44. Which catalyst is used in the preparation of acetic acid from methanol?
    [A] CoO [B] Ag2O [C] V2O5 [D] I2-Rh
  45. The boiling point of ethanoic acid is...
    [A] 293 K [B] 329 K [C] 351 K [D] 391 K
  46. The monomer of natural rubber is...
    [A] chloroprene [B] isoprene [C] neoprene [D] 1-chloroethene
  47. Flooring tiles are prepared from...
    [A] polythene [B] TEFLON [C] polyvinyl chloride [D] polybutadiene
  48. 2-chloro-1,3-diene is the monomer of...
    [A] PVC [B] TEFLON [C] neoprene [D] natural rubber
  49. The elastic character of natural rubber is maintained between...
    [A] 283-333 K [B] 293-353 K [C] 273-353 K [D] 313-343 K
  50. To increase the rate of reaction during vulcanization of rubber, ______ is added.
    [A] lead [B] sulphur [C] ZnO [D] PbCO3
  51. During saponification reaction, what is obtained as by-product?
    [A] Glycerol [B] Ethanol [C] Sodium Ethoxide [D] Sodium carbonate
  52. Which of the following is not a functional group containing oxygen?
    [A] Alcohol [B] Aldehyde [C] Ketone [D] Halide
  53. The fermentation process to manufacture ethanol is...
    [A] an aerobic process       [B] an anaerobic process
    [C] a polymerization process [D] a catalytic aerobic process
  54. The IUPAC name of acetic acid is...
    [A] methanoic acid [B] ethanoic acid [C] propanoic acid [D] vinegar
  55. Ethylethanoate is...
    [A] an alcohol [B] an acid [C] an ester [D] a ketone
  56. In aldehydes, the carbonyl group is attached to...
    [A] one hydrogen and one oxygen      [B] two alkyl groups 
    [C] one hydrogen and one alkyl group [D] one oxygen and one alkyl group
  57. What is vinegar?
    [A] Methanol [B] Ethanol [C] Formic acid [D] Acetic acid
  58. An organic acid + an alcohol ----> ______ + water
    [A] An aldehyde [B] a ketone [C] an ester [D] a carboxylic acid
  59. The enzyme which converts milk into curd is...
    [A] lactase [B] invertase [C] zymase [D] cellulase
  60. Which of the following is not an oxidizing agent?
    [A] NaBH4 [B] KMNO4 [C] Cr2O3 [D] Fehling's solution
  61. Which of the following is a condensation polymer?
    [A] PVC [B] Nylon [C] Natural rubber [D] TEFLON
  62. Which gas is produced during fermentation?
    [A] CO [B] CO2 [C] Cl2 [D] O2
  63. Which of the following compounds has more reactivity?
    [A] Methane [B] Ethane [C] Ethene [D] Ethyne
  64. Which functional group do carboxylic acid compounds have?
    [A] >C=O [B] -COOH [C] -CHO [D] -OH
  65. What is the name of the aldehyde corresponding to butane?
    [A] Butyric acid [B] Butanone [C] Butanal [D] Butanol
  66. The names of the compounds with functional group _____ end with suffix 'ol'.
    [A] -CHO [B] >C=O [C] -NH2 [D] -OH
  67. What is the molecular formula of acetone?
    [A] CH3OH [B] CH3COCH3 [C] CH3CH2CHO [D] CH3CH2COOH
  68. What is the molecular formula of formalin?
    [A] HCOOH [B] HCOOCH3 [C] HCHO [D] HCOOC2H5
  69. Which acid is present in curd?
    [A] Lactic acid [B] Formic acid [C] Acetic acid [D] Citric acid
  70. A person loses his eye-sight if he consumes ethanol containing toxic substance______.
    [A] Formalin [B] Vinegar [C] Propanol [D] Methanol
  71. What is obtained by reduction of methanal?
    [A] Methanol [B] Ethanol [C] Ethanoic acid [D] Ethene
  72. Which of the following is used to prepare milk bags?
    [A] Polythene [B] PVC [C] Nylon [D] TEFLON
  73. Which functional group is attached with hydrocarbon part in soap?
    [A] -SO3K [B] SO3Na [C] -COONa [D] -COOH
  74. Which of the following is used to prepare water pipes?
    [A] Polythene [B] PVC [C] Nylon [D] TEFLON
  75. Which chemical is used to preserve the residues of dead animals?
    [A] Methanol [B] Ethanol [C] Formalin [D] Acetic acid
  76. Water gas is a mixture of ...
    [A] CO and N2 [B] CO and O2 [C] CO2 and H2 [D] CO and H2
  77. Which functional group is attached with hydrocarbon part in detergent?
    [A] -SO3K [B] SO3Na [C] -COONa [D] -COOH
  78. Which of the following ions is present in hard water?
    [A] Cu2+ [B] Pb2+ [C] Mg2+ [D] Al3+ 
  79. Which type of polymer is polystyrene?
    [A] Addition [B] Condensation [C] Bipolymer [D] Cyclic polymer
  80. Which of the following is used as a bio-polymer for taking stitches after surgery?
    [A] Dextran [B] Nylon [C] Polyester [D] Acrylic fibre
  81. Polyamide is also known as...
    [A] Polyester [B] Nylon [C] Acrylic fibre [D] TEFLON
  82. Who invented vulcanized rubber?
    [A] Fischer-Tropsch [B] Maxwell [C] Haber [D] Charles Goodyear
  83. _____ is obtained as a gas at room temperature.
    [A] Ethanol [B] Ethanoic acid [C] Methanal [D] Propanone
  84. How much sulphur is added in rubber to obtain vulcanised rubber for making tyres?
    [A] 5% [B] 10% [C] 15% [D] 20%

  85. [A][B][C][D]


ANSWERS


(1) B (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) B (6) C (7) C (8) C (9) C (10) A (11) D (12) C (13) B (14) D (15) D (16) A (17) B (18) B (19) C (20) C (21) D (22) D (23) B (24) A (25) B (26) D (27) B (28) C (29) A (30) B (31) A (32) C (33) D (34) D (35) A (36) C (37) D (38) B (39) B (40) C (41) D (42) B (43) A (44) D (45) D (46) B (47) C (48) C (49) A (50) C (51) A (52) D (53) B (54) B (55) C (56) C (57) D (58) C (59) A (60) A (61) B (62) B (63) D (64) B (65) C (66) D (67) B (68) C (69) A (70) D (71) A (72) A (73) C (74) B (75) C (76) D (77) B (78) C (79) A (80) A (81) B (82) D (83) C (84) A (85) (86) (87) (88) (89) (90)

Monday, November 18, 2013

Chapter 12 : NUTRITION AND RESPIRATION

Choose Appropriate Alternative


  1. Which of the following types of organism has the longest small intestine?
    [A] Carnivores [B] Omnivores [C] Herbivores [D] Autotrophs
  2. The process of obtaining food by amoeba is known as...
    [A] Dialysis [B] Cytokinesis [C] Phagocytosis [D] Amoebiosis
  3. Which organism possesses parasitic mode of nutrition?
    [A] Penicillium [B] Plasmodium [C] Paramoecium [D] Euglena
  4. Which one of the following organisms has saprophytic mode of nutrition?
    [A] Mushroom [B] Malarial parasite [C] Leech [D] Lice
  5. The length of small intestine in an adult human being is about...
    [A] 4.5 m [B] 1.5 m [C] 3.5 m [D] 6.5 m
  6. Where does the process of digestion of food start in human being?
    [A] Stomach [B] Food canal [C] Mouth [D] Small intestine
  7. In which organ is the process of digestion in humans completed?
    [A] Oesophagus [B] Small intestine [C] Stomach [D] Large intestine
  8. By which of the following is bile secreted in human digestive system?
    [A] Pancreas [B] Liver [C] Kidney [D] Stomach
  9. The autotrophic nutrition requires...
    [A] carbon dioxide and water [B] chlorophyll [C] sunlight [D] all of the above
  10. In human digestive system, which organs secrete enzyme pepsin and trypsin respectively?
    [A] Pancreas and liver        [B] Stomach and salivary gland 
    [C] Pancreas and gall bladder [D] Stomach and pancreas
  11. Which of the following organisms can live without oxygen?
    [A] Amoeba [B] Sheep [C] Yeast [D] Leech
  12. During respiration, the exchange of gases takes place in...
    [A] bronchi [B] alveoli [C] bronchioles [D] trachea
  13. In which of the following organisms, the gaseous exchange during respiration does not take place through cell membrane or skin?
    [A] Ray fish [B] Leech [C] Earthworm [D] Amoeba
  14. Autotrophic organisms obtain nutrition by the process of...
    [A] photosynthesis [B] nitrification [C] respiration [D] absorption
  15. During cellular respiration...
    [A] food is digested [B] food is absorbed [C] energy is released [D] energy is absorbed
  16. Autotrophic means...
    [A] self-control [B] self-nutrition [C] self-protection [D] nonliving
  17. What is used to confirm the presence of starch?
    [A] Alcohol [B] Sulphuric acid [C] Iodine [D] Chlorophyll
  18. The opening and closing of stomata are controlled by...
    [A] chlorophyll [B] guard cells [C] sunlight [D] leaf
  19. What is used for removing chlorophyll from a green leaf?
    [A] Alcohol [B] Sulphuric acid [C] Sunlight [D] Iodine
  20. Organisms obtaining nutrition from dead and decaying matter are called...
    [A] phagocytes [B] parasites [C] autotrophs [D] saprophytes
  21. ______ obtains parasitic nutrition.
    [A] Locust [B] Cuscuta [C] Mushroom [D] Earthworm
  22. The mode of nutrition in higher animals is...
    [A] parasitic [B] saprophytic [C] autotrophic [D] holozoic
  23. Which of the following is an omnivore?
    [A] Goat [B] Tiger [C] Rat [D] Lion
  24. The mode of nutrition in amoeba is...
    [A] parasitic [B] saprophytic [C] holozoic [D] autotrophic
  25. Which enzyme is secreted by salivary glands?
    [A] Amylase [B] Pepsin [C] Invertase [D] Trypsin
  26. What does enzyme amylase do?
    [A] Converts glucose to starch [B] Converts starch to maltose
    [C] Converts starch to protein [D] Converts proteins to amino acids
  27. Which of the following is not a component of gastric juice?
    [A] Hydrochloric acid [B] Pepsinogen  [C] Nitric acid [D] Mucus
  28. Enzyme pepsin digests...
    [A] starch [B] cellulose [C] lipids [D] proteins
  29. The small intestine receives secretions from...
    [A] liver [B] pancreas [C] both liver and pancreas [D] gall bladder
  30. Bile secreted by liver is...
    [A] alkaline [B] acidic [C] neutral [D] both alkaline and acidic
  31. Pancreatic juice contains...
    [A] amylase [B] trypsin [C] lipase [D] all three
  32. Which enzyme helps in digestion of fat?
    [A] Amylase [B] Trypsin [C] Lipase [D] Both amylase and trypsin
  33. In holozoic nutrition ______ is the last step involved.
    [A] digestion [B] absorption [C] assimilation [D] ingestion
  34. The process of releasing energy from food is called...
    [A] digestion [B] nutrition [C] assimilation [D] respiration
  35. The energy released during respiration is stored in...
    [A] ATP [B] mitochondria [C] lungs [D] cell nucleus
  36. During anaerobic respiration, glucose molecules are broken down to _____ in animal muscle cells.
    [A] ethanol [B] lactic acid [C] ethylene [D] glycogen
  37. In plants, the end products of anaerobic respiration are CO2 and...
    [A] ethanol [B] lactic acid [C] water [D] starch
  38. Aerobic respiration takes place in...
    [A] cytoplasm [B] mitochondria [C] both cytoplasm and mitochondria [D] lungs
  39. Anaerobic respiration takes place in...
    [A] cytoplasm [B] mitochondria [C] both cytoplasm and mitochondria [D] lungs
  40. Which of the following parts of plants perform respiration?
    [A] Roots [B] Stem [C] Leaves [D] All three
  41. In woody plants, respiratory gaseous exchange in stems takes place through...
    [A] stomata [B] lenticels [C] both stomata and lenticels [D] specific tissues
  42. Respiration in amoeba occurs through...
    [A] gills [B] pseudopodia [C] cell membrane [D] vacuole
  43. Earthworm respires through...
    [A] trachea [B] lungs [C] skin [D] cilia
  44. Which of the following organisms does not use gills for respiration?
    [A] Fish [B] Euglena [C] Prawn [D] Crab
  45. ______ use gills for respiration.
    [A] Paramoecium [B] Earthworm [C] Euglena [D] Sepia
  46. ______ prevents food from entering trachea.
    [A] Glottis [B] Epiglottis [C] Mucus [D] Pharynx
  47. ______ plays an important role in breathing.
    [A] Diaphragm [B] Alveoli [C] Trachea [D] Glottis
  48. Which process is involved in respiratory gaseous exchange?
    [A] Swallowing [B] Diffusion [C] Oxidation [D] Glycolysis
  49. The living organisms obtain nutrition from...
    [A] energy [B] food [C] environment [D] sunlight
  50. During which process energy is released from the absorbed food?
    [A] Respiration [B] Nutrition [C] Photosynthesis [D] Chemosynthesis
  51. Which of the following processes is responsible for the change in the size of the organism?
    [A] Reproduction [B] Excretion [C] Movement [D] Growth
  52. The organisms which can synthesize their own food from natural inorganic substances are called...
    [A] autotrophs [B] heterotrophs [C] saprophytes [D] herbivores
  53. Autotrophic organisms possess ______ pigment.
    [A] haemoglobin [B] melanin [C] chlorophyll [D] phenolphthalin
  54. Which inorganic substances are used by autotrophs to synthesize food in presence of sunlight and chlorophyll?
    [A] CO2 and O2 [B] CO2 and NO2[C] CO2 and H2O [D] CO2 and H2
  55. Apart from green plants photosynthesis is also seen in...
    [A] euglena [B] volvox [C] mushroom [D] both euglena and volvox
  56. We derive energy from the food which is stored in the body as...
    [A] starch [B] glucose [C] glycogen [D] lactose
  57. In which of the following parts of the plants is photosynthesis seen to occur mostly?
    [A] Leaves [B] Roots [C] Stem [D] Flowers
  58. The products of photosynthesis are...
    [A] CO2 and O2[B] CO2 and H2O [C] Glucose and O2 [D] CO2 and glucose
  59. What type of energy conversion takes place during photosynthesis?
    [A] Chemical energy to light energy [B] Light energy to chemical energy
    [C] Light energy to heat energy    [D] Light energy to atomic energy
  60. During photosynthesis carbohydrates are formed by _______ of CO2.
    [A] oxidation [B] reduction [C] carboxylation [D] hydrolysis
  61. The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by...
    [A] epidermal cells [B] epithelial cells [C] lenticels [D] guard cells
  62. The mode of nutrition in which one organism obtains nutrition from other organisms is known as...
    [A] autotrophic nutrition [B] heterothrophic nutrition 
    [C] saprophytic nutrition [D] symbiosis
  63. When one living organism depends on another living organism for nutrition, the mode of nutrition is called...
    [A] parasitic nutrition [B] saprophytic nutrition [C] symbiosis [D] holozoic nutrition
  64. Which of the following is the correct order for process of nutrition?
    [A] Digestion, absorption, assimilation, egestion 
    [B] Absorption, assimilation, egestion, ingestion 
    [C] Ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation
    [D] Digestion, absorption, ingestion, egestion
  65. Amoeba uses ______ for ingestion of food.
    [A] tantacles [B] pseudopodia [C] cilia [D] oral opening
  66. In amoeba, the absorption of digested food takes place in...
    [A] cytoplasm [B] cell membrane [C] food vacuole [D] nucleus
  67. Which of the following is the correct order of human digestive organs?
    [A] Mouth, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine 
    [B] Stomach, large intestine, small intestine, oesophagus, mouth
    [C] Mouth, stomach, oesophagus, large intestine, small intestine
    [D] Mouth, small intestine, stomach, large intestine, oesophagus
  68. In which organ does the first digestion of starch occur in humans?
    [A] Stomach [B] Small intestine [C] Large intestine [D] Mouth
  69. Approximately for how much time does food remain in stomach?
    [A] 30 minutes [B] 3 hours [C] 6 hours [D] 8 hours
  70. What is the nature of gastric juice?
    [A] Acidic [B] Alkaline [C] Neutral [D] Basic
  71. In humans, the process of digestion of food ends in...
    [A] stomach [B] small intestine [C] large intestine [D] liver
  72. Fats are broken into small globules by...
    [A] bile salt [B] hormones [C] pepsin [D] amylase
  73. Which of the following converts starch to glucose, proteins to amino acids and fats to glycerol?
    [A] Gastric juice [B] Bile salts [C] Intestinal juice [D] Pepsinogen
  74. Where are the nutrients of the digested food absorbed?
    [A] In small intestine [B] In stomach [C] In large intestine [D] In oesophagus
  75. Which type of reaction is respiration?
    [A] Oxidation [B] Reduction [C] Hydrolysis [D] Pyrolysis
  76. During glycolysis, glucose is converted to...
    [A] starch [B] cellulose [C] pyruvic acid [D] CO2
  77. How many ATP molecules are produced after complete oxidation of a glucose molecule?
    [A] 2 [B] 8 [C] 18 [D] 38
  78. How many ATP molecules are produced from one molecule of glucose during anaerobic respiration?
    [A] 2 [B] 8 [C] 18 [D] 38
  79. Which of the following functions is carried out by stomata?
    [A] Photosynthesis [B] Respiration [C] Exchange of gases [D] Absorption of water
  80. The first and the last organs of human respiratory system are...
    [A] Nostrils, lungs [B] Nasal cavity, lungs [C] Buccal cavity, trachea [D] Pharynx, trachea
  81. Which of the following shows anaerobic phase of aerobic respiration?
    [A] Gluconeogenesis [B] Respiration [C] Glycolysis [D] Both respiration and glycolysis

  82. [A][B][C][D]


ANSWERS


(1) C (2) C (3) B (4) A (5) D (6) C (7) B (8) B (9) D (10) D (11) C (12) B (13) A (14) A (15) C (16) B (17) C (18) B (19) A (20) D (21) B (22) D (23) C (24) C (25) A (26) B (27) C (28) D (29) C (30) A (31) D (32) C (33) C (34) D (35) A (36) B (37) A (38) C (39) A (40) D (41) B (42) C (43) C (44) B (45) D (46) B (47) A (48) B (49) B (50) A (51) D (52) A (53) C (54) C (55) D (56) C (57) A (58) C (59) B (60) B (61) D (62) B (63) A (64) C (65) B (66) A (67) A (68) D (69) B (70) A (71) C (72) A (73) C (74) A (75) A (76) C (77) D (78) A (79) C (80) A (81) C (82) (83) (84) (85) (86) (87) (88) (89) (90)

Thursday, November 14, 2013

Chapter 13 : TRANSPORTATION, CIRCULATION, EXCRETION IN ORGANISMS

Choose Appropriate Alternative


  1. Which of the following structures is responsible for transportation of water in higher plants?
    [A] Sieve tube [B] Sieve cell [C] Vessel [D] Companion cell
  2. The kidneys in human being are a part of the system for...
    [A] respiration [B] transportation [C] excretion [D] nutrition
  3. How many chambers are present in human heart?
    [A] 2 [B] 3 [C] 4 [D] 6
  4. Where is tricuspid valve found in human heart?
    [A] Between two atria                   [B] Between two ventricles 
    [C] Between right atrium and right ventricle [D] Between left atrium and left ventricle
  5. What is the excretory unit in human being?
    [A] Bowman's capsule [B] Nephron [C] Urinary bladder [D] Kidney
  6. In which part of the body does blood get purified (becomes oxygenated)?
    [A] Heart [B] Lungs [C] Atrium [D] Ventricle
  7. In plants, food and other substances are transported through...
    [A] tracheids [B] vessels [C] sieve tubes [D] companion cell
  8. By which process is blood filtered out in Bowman's capsule?
    [A] Reabsorption [B] Secretion [C] Ultrafiltration [D] None of the three
  9. ______ is a structural component of xylem.
    [A] Tracheid [B] Companion cell [C] Sieve cell [D] All three
  10. The loss of water in the form of vapours from the aerial parts of a plant is known as...
    [A] translocation [B] evaporation [C] expiration [D] transpiration
  11. Transport of food from leaves to other parts of the plant is called...
    [A] translocation [B] transpiration [C] ascent [D] translation
  12. Sieve tube is a part of...
    [A] sieve cells [B] xylem [C] tracheid [D] phloem
  13. Oxygenated blood from lungs enters left atrium through...
    [A] vena cava [B] pulmonary artery [C] pulmonary vein [D] aorta
  14. Oxygenated blood from left ventricle is distributed to other parts of the body through...
    [A] vena cava [B] pulmonary artery [C] pulmonary vein [D] aorta
  15. The partition separating all four chambers of heart from one another is called...
    [A] bicuspid valve [B] tricuspid valve [C] septa [D] vena cava
  16. Which of the following is a true statement?
    [A] The wall of the vein is thick and elastic. [B] Veins possess valves. 
    [C] Arteries carry blood to heart. [D] veins join to form capillaries.
  17. Which of the following is not a part of kidney?
    [A] Cortex [B] Medulla [C] Urethra [D] Nephron
  18. There are about ______ uriniferous tubules in each kidney.
    [A] 1,000 [B] 10,000 [C] 1,00,000 [D] 10,00,000
  19. The process of ultrafiltration takes place in...
    [A] Bowman's capsule [B] Henle's loop [C] Bladder [D] Renal pelvis
  20. During photosynthesis plants convert light energy into...
    [A] heat energy [B] mechanical energy [C] chemical energy [D] kinetic energy
  21. Which of the following are components of xylem tissue?
    1. tracheid
    2. companion cell
    3. sieve tube
    4. vessel

    [A] (i) and (ii) [B] (ii) and (iii) [C] (i) and (iv) [D] (ii) and (iv)
  22. What type of pressure is created in leaf cells due to transpiration?
    [A] Capillary force [B] Surface tension [C] Suction force [D] Cellular tension
  23. Which of the following are components of phloem tissue?
    1. tracheid
    2. sieve cell
    3. sieve tube
    4. vessel

    [A] (i) and (ii) [B] (ii) and (iii) [C] (i) and (iv) [D] (ii) and (iv)
  24. Translocation takes place in...
    [A] upward direction only            [B] downward direction only
    [C] both upward and downward directions [D] in all directions
  25. Translocation of substances in a plant requires energy which is obtained from...
    [A] food [B] NADP [C] hormones [D] ATP
  26. When the materials like sucrose are transferred to phloem tissue, the osmotic pressure of the tissue ______ leading to ______ of water into/from it.
    [A] increases, entry [B] increases, exit [C] decreases, entry [D] decreases, exit
  27. The system concerned with the transportation of various substances in animals is called...
    [A] excretory system [B] control system [C] circulatory system [D] endocrine system
  28. Walls of arteries are...
    [A] thin and elastic [B] thick and elastic 
    [C] thin and nonelastic [D] thick and nonelastic
  29. Which structure carries blood to individual cells of the body?
    [A] Artery [B] Vein [C] Arteriole [D] Capillary
  30. What do the lymph vessels in the villi of small intestine absorb?
    [A] Carbohydrates [B] Proteins [C] Lipids [D] Vitamins
  31. Plants store excretory waste products...
    [A] in food vacuoles [B] as resins and gum 
    [C] in cellular vacuoles [D] both in cellular vacuoles and as resin and gums
  32. Unicellular organisms use _____ process for excretion.
    [A] diffusion [B] osmosis [C] evaporation [D] vomiting
  33. Which is the main excretory organ of human body?
    [A] Urinary bladder [B] Ureter [C] Kidney [D] Uriniferous tubule
  34. The tube emerging from each kidney is called...
    [A] uriniferous tubule [B] ureter [C] urethra [D] urinary bladder
  35. Urine is stored in...
    [A] ureter [B] kidney [C] urinary bladder [D] ureter
  36. Vessel A has valves to prevent backward flow of blood. Vessel B has high blood pressure. If vessel B is a pulmonary vessel then...
    [A] vessel B is aorta [B] vessel B is pulmonary artery [C] vessel B is vena cava [D] vessel B is pulmonary vein
  37. What are the blood capillaries lying in the cup-shaped groove of Bowman's capsule called?
    [A] Glomerulus [B] Lymphatic vessels [C] Renal ducts [D] Sieve capillaries
  38. Renal pelvis opens into...
    [A] Bowman's capsule [B] neck [C] ureter [D] Henle's loop

  39. [A][B][C][D]


ANSWERS


(1) C (2) C (3) C (4) C (5) B (6) B (7) C (8) C (9) A (10) D (11) A (12) D (13) C (14) D (15) C (16) B (17) C (18) D (19) A (20) C (21) C (22) C (23) B (24) C (25) D (26) A (27) C (28) B (29) D (30) C (31) B (32) A (33) C (34) B (35) C (36) D (37) A (38) C (39) (40)

Sunday, November 3, 2013

Chapter 14 : CONTROL AND COORDINATION IN ORGANISMS

CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE


  1. What is called the movement of plant toward gravity?
    [A] Hydrotropism [B] Geotropism [C] Chemotropism [D] Phototropism
  2. The plant part which exhibits negative geotropism is...
    [A] root [B] stem [C] branch [D] leaves
  3. The growth of a pollen tube towards the ovule is caused by...
    [A] phototropism [B] hydrotropism [C] gravitropism [D] chemotropism
  4. Bending of a shoot of a plant in response to light is known as...
    [A] geotropism [B] phototropism [C] thigmotropism [D] photonasty
  5. The stimulus in the process of thigmotropism is
    [A] touch [B] gravity [C] light [D] chemical
  6. Which of the following helps in maintaining posture and balance of human body?
    [A] Cerebellum [B] Cerebrum [C] Medulla oblongata [D] Pons
  7. How many pairs of nerves arise from the spinal cord?
    [A] 21 [B] 31 [C] 41 [D] 51
  8. Cerebellum, medulla oblongata and pons are the parts of...
    [A] mid-brain [B] hind-brain [C] fore-brain [D] spinal cord
  9. For the synthesis of which of the following hormones is iodine necessary?
    [A] Adrenaline [B] Auxin [C] Thyroxine [D] Insulin
  10. Which of the following is a mis-matched pair?
    [A] Adrenaline and pituitary gland [B] Estrogen and ovary 
    [C] Insulin and pancreas [D] Progesterone and ovary
  11. The spinal cord originates from...
    [A] cerebrum [B] cerebellum [C] medulla oblongata [D] pons
  12. Which of the following hormones prepares our body for action in emergency situations?
    [A] Testosterone [B] Growth hormone [C] Adrenaline [D] Insulin
  13. Which of the following is male sex hormone?
    [A] Estrogen [B] Adrenaline [C] Testosterone [D] Progesterone
  14. Which of the following endocrine glands does not occur as a pair in human body?
    [A] Adrenal [B] Pituitary [C] Testis [D] Ovary
  15. Plant hormones are called...
    [A] phytohormones [B] cytohormones [C] mesohormones [D] mitohormones
  16. Which of the following hormones is a growth inhibitor?
    [A] Auxin [B] Gibberellin [C] Cytikinin [D] Abscisic acid
  17. The leaves of a sensitive plant possess a soft cushion-like structure called...
    [A] pulmonus [B] pulvinus [C] pollenus [D] polynus
  18. Which of the following plants shows thermonasty at higher temperatures?
    [A] Lotus [B] Sunflower [C] Tulip [D] Mimosa
  19. The structural and functional unit of human nervous system is...
    [A] brain [B] nerve cell [C] axon [D] spinal cord
  20. The protective and insulation sheath of myelin is found around...
    [A] axon [B] dendrite [C] cell body [D] pons
  21. The very small gap between two nerve cells is called...
    [A] myelin [B] Ranvier's node [C] synapse [D] impulse
  22. The central nervous system consists of...
    [A] brain [B] spinal cord [C] brain and spinal cord [D] cerebrum and pons
  23. The average weight of an adult human brain is ______ gm.
    [A] 1000 [B] 1350 [C] 1530 [D] 3150
  24. Pons regulates...
    [A] body balance [B] blood circulation [C] blood pressure [D] respiration
  25. Involuntary activities are controlled by...
    [A] fore-brain [B] cerebellum [C] medulla oblongata [D] spinal cord
  26. In spinal cord, the grey matter is arranged in ______ shape.
    [A] H [B] W [C] R [D] K
  27. Which of the following is not an example of reflex action?
    [A] Sneezing [B] Yawning [C] Walking [D] Coughing
  28. In reflex action ______ plays no role.
    [A] brain [B] spinal cord [C] sensory neuron [D] motor neuron
  29. The effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are...
    [A] complimentary [B] contradictory [C] both of A and B [D] neither of A and B
  30. Which of the following hormones is not released by pituitary gland?
    [A] TSH [B] Thyroxin [C] ACTH [D] FSH
  31. Which hormone causes ejection of milk from mammary glands?
    [A] Vasopressin [B] Oxytocin [C] FSH [D] TSH
  32. ______ is antidiuretic hormone.
    [A] Vasopressin [B] Oxytocin [C] FSH [D] TSH
  33. Diabetes is caused due to the deficiency of...
    [A] vasopressin [B] thyroxine [C] oxytocin [D] insulin
  34. Goitre is caused due to the deficiency of ______ in our diet.
    [A] iron [B] iodine [C] sodium [D] protein
  35. Hypothyroidism results in...
    [A] enlargement of thyroid [B] contraction of thyroid 
    [C] exophthalmic goitre [D] deficiency of iodine
  36. The hormone secreted by parathyroid gland regulates the level of ______ in blood.
    [A] RBC & WBC [B] sugar & fat [C] calcium & phosphate [D] protein
  37. ______ is called 'fight or flight' hormone.
    [A] Thyroxine [B] Adrenalin [C] Testosterone [D] FSH
  38. Hormones have ______ effect.
    [A] stimulatory [B] inhibitory [C] both stimulatory & inhibitory [D] nonregulatory
  39. Animals coordinate their activities through...
    [A] nervous system [B] hormones [C] both in A and B [D] brain
  40. Which of the following is/are growth promoter hormone/s in plants
    [A] Auxin [B] Abscisic acid [C] Cytokinin [D] Auxin and cytokinin
  41. The growth of plant in the direction of stimulus is called...
    [A] tropism [B] nastism [C] positive tropism [D] negative tropism
  42. The growth of stem is known as...
    [A] geotropism [B] gravitropism [C] positive geotropism [D] negative geotropism
  43. When we touch the leaves of mimosa plant, we observe...
    [A] photonasty [B] thermonasty [C] thigmonasty [D] hydronasty
  44. The flowers of lotus and sunflower open in the morning. This is an example of...
    [A] thigmonasty [B] thermonasty [C] photonasty [D] tropic movement
  45. Opening of crocus and Tulip flowers at high temperature is an example of...
    [A] thigmonasty [B] thermonasty [C] thermotropism [D] thigmotropism
  46. The shorter fibres of nerve cell are called...
    [A] dendrite [B] axon [C] synapse [D] nerve fibre
  47. The longest fibres of nerve cell are called...
    [A] dendrite [B] axon [C] synapse [D] nerve fibre
  48. Which structure of a nerve cell receives the nerve impulse passed on by another nerve cell?
    [A] Dendrite [B] Axon [C] Nerve fibre [D] Ranvier's node
  49. By which structure does nerve impulse pass from one nerve cell to other nerve cell?
    [A] Dendrite [B] Axon [C] Nerve fibre [D] Ranvier's node
  50. After travelling through the nerve cell, the nerve impulse gets converted to...
    [A] chemical signal [B] electrical signal [C] mechanical signal [D] electronic signal
  51. The structure that protects brain is called...
    [A]vertebral column [B] cranium [C] thalamus [D] corpus callosum
  52. The brain is surrounded by membranes called...
    [A] corpus callosum [B] meninges [C] thalamus [D] lobes
  53. Which matter is present in the outer region of brain?
    [A] Blue matter [B] White matter [C] Grey matter [D] Dark matter
  54. Which matter forms the inner part of brain?
    [A] Blue matter [B] White matter [C] Grey matter [D] Dark matter
  55. Which of the following protects brain from mechanical shock?
    [A] White matter [B] Grey matter [C] Dark fluid [D] Cerebrospinal fluid
  56. Which is the largest and most complex part of human brain?
    [A] Cerebrum [B] Cerebellum [C] Pons [D] cranium 
  57. The two cerebral hemispheres are joined together by...
    [A] cranium [B] pons [C] medulla oblongata [D] corpus callosum
  58. Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into _____ lobes.
    [A] 2 [B] 3 [C] 4 [D] 6
  59. Which of the following is a highly convoluted structure?
    [A] cerebellum [B] cerebral medulla [C] cerebral cortex [D] corpus callosum
  60. Which of the following part of the brain controls and regulates blood pressure, hunger, body temperature and thirst?
    [A] Thalamus [B] Hypothalamus [C] Medulla oblongata [D] Cerebellum
  61. Which of the following coordinates the body movement?
    [A] Pons [B] Medulla oblongata [C] Cerebellum [D] Corpora quadrigemina
  62. Which of the following controls involuntary activities like coughing and sneezing?
    [A] Pons [B] Medulla oblongata [C] Cerebellum [D] Cerebrum
  63. The spinal cord is protected by...
    [A] cranium [B] corpus callosum [C] pons [D] vertebral column
  64. Which of the following nerve fibres are present in the white matter?
    [A] Medullated nerve fibres and neurons with long processes 
    [B] Medullated nerve fibres and neurons with short processes
    [C] Nonmedullated nerve fibres and neurons with long processes
    [D] Nonmedullated nerve fibres and neurons with short processes
  65. Which of the following nerve fibres are present in the grey matter?
    [A] Medullated nerve fibres and neurons with long processes 
    [B] Medullated nerve fibres and neurons with short processes
    [C] Nonmedullated nerve fibres and neurons with long processes
    [D] Nonmedullated nerve fibres and neurons with short processes
  66. The nervous system that controls the involuntary activities is called...
    [A] autonomous nervous system [B] central nervous system
    [C] independent nervous system [D] absolute nervous system
  67. Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are parts of...
    [A] central nervous system [B] autonomous nervous system 
    [C] peripheral nervous system [D] special nervous system
  68. In which part of the body are pituitary gland, pineal gland and hypothalamus are located?
    [A] Abdominal cavity [B] Brain [C] Neck [D] Thoracic cavity
  69. Melanocyte stimulating hormone is secreted from ______ pituitary gland.
    [A] anterior [B] intermediate [C] posterior [D] dorsal
  70. ______ is the gland attached to the kidney.
    [A] Pineal [B] Thyroid [C] Testis [D] Adrenal
  71. _____ stimulates the absorption of water and controls the loss of water through urine.
    [A] ADH [B] TSH [C] ACTH [D] FSH
  72. A patient experienced a sudden rise in body weight up to 6 kg within a couple of weeks. Disorder of which gland is related to this condition?
    [A] Adrenal [B] Testes/ovary [C] Pancreas [D] Thyroid
  73. In which lobe of cerebrum is the centre for visual reception located?
    [A] Frontal [B] Parietal [C] Temporal [D] Occipital

  74. [A][B][C][D]


ANSWERS


(1) B (2) B (3) D (4) B (5) A (6) A (7) B (8) B (9) C (10) A (11) C (12) C (13) C (14) B (15) A (16) D (17) B (18) C (19) B (20) A (21) C (22) C (23) B (24) D (25) C (26) A (27) C (28) A (29) C (30) B (31) B (32) A (33) D (34) B (35) A (36) C (37) B (38) C (39) C (40) D (41) A (42) D (43) C (44) C (45) B (46) A (47) B (48) A (49) B (50) A (51) B (52) B (53) C (54) B (55) D (56) A (57) D (58) C (59) C (60) B (61) C (62) B (63) D (64) A (65) D (66) A (67) B (68) B (69) B (70) D (71) A (72) D (73) D (74) (75)